RD Sharma Class 7 solutions Chapter-11 Percentage Exercise-11.6 Q6

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Important Questions for Class 12 Computer Science (C++) – Linked List, Stack and Queue

Topic – 1
Linked List and Stack
Previous years Examination Questions
2 Marks Questions

Question 1:
Convert the following infix expression to its equivalent postfix expression, showing the stack contents for each step of conversion:
P/(Q-R)*S + T All India 2016
Аnswer:

Question 2:
Convert the following infix expression to its equivalent postfix expression, showing the stack contents for each step of conversion.
A/(B + Q*D-E Delhi 2016
Аnswer:

Question 3:
Convert the following infix expression to its equivalent postfix expression, showing the stack contents for each step of conversion.
P/(Q+(R-T)*U All India (C) 2016
Аnswer:

Question 4:
Convert the following infix expression to its equivalent postfix expression, showing the stack contents for each step of conversion:
(U* V+ R/ (S-T)) All India 2015
Аnswer:

Question 5:
Convert the following infix expression to its equivalent postfix expression, showing the stack contents for each step of conversion.
(X/Y+U*(V-W)) Delhi 2015
Аnswer:

Question 6:
Evaluate the following postfix expression. Show the. status of stack after execution of each operation separately:
F, T, NOT, AND, F, OR, T, AND   Delhi 2014
Аnswer:

Question 7:
Evaluate the following postfix expression. Show the status of stack after execution of each operation separately:
T, F, NOT, AND, T, OR, F, AND    All India 2014
Аnswer:

Question 8:
Evaluate the following postfix expression: (show status of stack after each operation)
100,40,8,/,20,10,-,+,*     All India (C) 2014
Аnswer:

Question 9:
Evaluate the following postfix expression. Show the status of stack after execution of each operation:
5, 2, *, 50, 5, /, 5, -, +      All India 2013
Аnswer:

Question 10:
Evaluate the following postfix expression. Show the status of stack after execution of each operation:
60, 6, /, 5, 2, *, 5, -, +     Delhi 2013
Аnswer:

Question 11:
Evaluate the following postfix expression using a stack and show the contents of stack after execution of each operation:
5, 3, 2, *, 4, 2, /, -, *      Delhi 2013C
Аnswer:

Question 12:
Evaluate the following postfix notation. Show status of stack after every step of evaluation (i.e. after each operator):
False, NOT, True, AND, True, False, OR, AND      Delhi 2012
Аnswer:

Question 13:
Evaluate the following postfix notation. Show status of stack after every step of evaluation (i.e. after each operator):
True, False, NOT, AND, False, True, OR, AND    All India 2012
Аnswer:

Question 14:
Evaluate the following postfix notation of expression:
50, 60, +, 20, 10, – ,*      Delhi 2011
Аnswer:

Question 15:
Evaluate the following postfix notation of expression:
True, False, NOT, AND, True, True, AND, OR  All india 2011
Аnswer:

Question 16:
Evaluate the following postfix notation of expression:
False, True, NOT, OR, True, False, AND, OR   Delhi 2010
Аnswer:

Question 17:
Evaluate the following postfix notation of expression. Show the status of stack after each operation:
True, False, NOT, OR, False, True, OR, AND  All  India 2010
Аnswer:

Question 18:
Convert the following infix expression to its equivalent postfix expression.
Showing stack contents for the conversion:
(X – Y/(Z+U)*V)    Delhi 2009
Аnswer:

Question 19:
Convert the following infix expression to its equivalent postfix expression.
Showing stack contents for the conversion:
(A + B* (C-D) IE) All India 2009
Аnswer:

4 Marks Questions

Question 20:
Write the definition of a member function PUSH( ) in C++, to add a new book in a dynamic stack of BOOKS considering the following code is already included in the program: All India 2015

struct BOOKS 
{
char ISBN[20], TITLE[80];
BOOKS *Link;
};
class STACK 
{
BOOKS *Top; 
public:
STACK() {Top=NULL;} 
void PUSH(); 
void POP();
∼STACK();
 };

Аnswer:

void STACK::PUSH()
{
BOOKS *b = new BOOKS; 
cout<<"Enter ISBN number"; 
cin>>b->ISBN; 
cout<<"Enter TITLE"; 
gets(b—>TITLE); 
if(TOP == NULL)
{
TOP = b;
}
else
{
b->Link = TOP; 
TOP = b;
}
}

Question 21:
Write the definition of a member function Pop( ) in C++, to delete a book from a dynamic stack of TEXTBOOKS considering the following code is already included in the program. Delhi 2015

struct TEXTBOOKS
{
char ISBN[20]; 
char TITLE[80]; 
TEXTBOOKS *Link;
};
class STACK 
{
TEXTBOOKS *Top; 
public:
STACK(){Top=NULL;} 
void Push(); 
void Pop();
∼STACKC);
};

Аnswer:

void STACK::Pop()
{
if(Top! = NULL)
{
TEXTBOOKS *Temp = Top;
Top = Top->Link; 
delete Temp; 
}
else
cout<<"Stack empty";
}

Question 22:
Write a function POPBOOK( ) in C++ to perform delete operation from a dynamic stack, which contains Bno and Title. Consider the following definition of NODE, while writing your C++ code.  Delhi 2014

struct NODE
{
int Bno;
char Title[20];
NODE *Link;
};

Аnswer:

void P0PB00K(N0DE *top)
{
cout<<:Deleting the top element from stackn"; 
cout<<"Book No:"<<top->Bno<<endl; 
cout<<"BookTitle:"<<top->Title<<endl;
NODE *temp = top;
top = top->Link; 
delete(temp);
}

Question 23:
Write a function PUSHBOOK( ) in C++ to perform insert operation on a dynamic stack, which contains Book_no and Book_Title. Consider the following definition of NODE, while writing your C++ code. All India 2014

struct NODE 
{
char Book_No; 
char Book_Title[20]:
NODE *Next:
};

Аnswer:

void PUSHBOOK(NODE *top)
{
NODE *NEW = new NODE; 
cout<<"Enter the Book Number:"; 
cin>>NEW->Book_No; 
cout<<"Enter the Book Title:"; 
gets(NEW->Book_Titie);
NEW->Next = NULL; 
if(top == NULL)
top = NEW; 
else 
{
NEW->Next = top; 
top = NEW;
}
}

Question 24:
Write a complete program in C++ to implement a dynamically allocated stack containing names of Countries. Delhi 2010
Аnswer:

The program is:
#include<iostream.h>
#include<stdio.h>
struct Node
{ 
char Country[30];
Node *Link;
};
class Stack 
{
Node *Top; 
public:
Stack(){Top = NULL;} 
void Push(); 
void Pop();
void Display();
∼Stack();
};
void Stack :: Push()
{
Node *Temp = new Node; 
gets(Temp->Country); 
Temp->Link = Top;
Top = Temp;
}
void Stack :: Pop()
{
if(Top!=NULL) 
{
Node *Temp = Top;
Top = Top->Link; 
delete Temp;
}
else
cout<<"Stack empty";
}
void Stack :: Display()
{
Node *Temp = Top; 
while(Temp!= NULL)
cout<<Temp->Country<<endl; 
Temp = Temp->Link;
Stack :: ∼Stack()
{
while(Top!=NULL)
{
Node *Temp = Top;
Top = Top->Link; 
delete Temp;
}
}
void main()
{
Stack ST; 
char ch; 
do 
{
cout<<"Choose any one P/O/D/Q"; /* displaying choices P - Push,0 - Pop, D-Display, Q-Exit */ 
cin>>ch; 
switch(ch)
{
case 'P':ST.Push(); 
break;
case '0':ST.Pop(); 
break;
case 'D':ST.Display();
}
}
while(ch!='Q');
}

Topic – 2
Queue
Previous years Examination Questions
4 Marks Questions

Question 1:
Write the definition of a member function DELETE( ) for a class QUEUE in C++, to remove a product from a dynamically allocated Queue of products considering the following code is already written as a part of the program. All India 2016

struct PRODUCT 
{
int PID; 
char PNAME[20];
PRODUCT *Next;
};
class QUEUE 
{
PRODUCT *R,*F; 
public:
QUEUE(){R=NULL;F=NULL;} 
void INSERT(); 
void DELETE();
∼QUEUE();
};

Аnswer:

void QUEUE :: DELETE() 
{
if(F!=NULL)
{
PRODUCT *Temp=F;
cout<<F->data<<"deletedn";
F=F->Next; 
delete Temp;
if(F==NULL)  
R=NULL;
}
else
cout<<"n Queue is Empty":
}

Question 2:
Write the definition of a member function INSERT( ) for a class QUEUE in C++, to insert an ITEM in a dynamically allocated Queue of items considering the following code is already written as a part of the program. Delhi 2016

struct ITEM 
{
int INO; 
char INAME[20];
ITEM *Link; 
};
class QUEUE 
{
ITEM *R, *F; 
public:
QUEUE() {R=NULL; F=NULL;} 
void INSERT(); 
void DELETE();
∼QUEUE();
};

Аnswer:

void QUEUE :: INSERT!)
{ 
ITEM *temp=new ITEM;
cout<<"n Enter Item no & Item name:";
cin>>temp->INO; 
gets(temp->IName);
temp->Next = Null;
if(R==Null)
{
R = temp;
F = temp; 
}
else
{
R->Next = temp;
R = temp;
}
}

Question 3:
Write the definition of a member function INSERT! ) in C++, to add a new passenger detail in a dynamic queue of PASSENGERS considering the following code is already existing in the program. All India 2015

struct PASSENGERS
{
char PID[20]; NAME[80];
PASSENGERS *Next;
};
class QUEUE
{
PASSENGERS *Rear, *Front; 
public:  
QUEUE() {Rear=NULL; Front=NULL}
void INSERT(); 
void DELETE();
∼QUEUE();
};

Аnswer:

void QUEUE ::INSERT()
{
PASSENGERS * P = new PASSENGERS; 
cout<<"Enter PID"; 
cin>>P->PID; 
cout<<"Enter Name"; 
gets(p->Name);
P->Next = NULL;
if(Rear == NULL)
{
Front = Rear = P;
}
else 
{
Rear->Next = P;
Rear = P;
}
}

Question 4:
Write a function QDELETE( ) in C++ to perform delete operation in a Linked Queue, which contains Passenger number and Passenger name. Consider the following definition of node in the code. All India 2013

struct node 
{
long int Pno; 
char Pname[20]; 
node *Link;
};

Аnswer:

void QDELETE()
{
if(Front == NULL) 
{
cout<<"Queue is empty"; 
exit(0);
}
else
{
node *temp = front; 
cout<<"Passenger Information"; 
cout<<Front->Pno; 
cout<<Front->Pname;
Front=Front->Link; 
delete temp;
}
}

Question 5:
Write a function QINSERT( ) in C++ to perform insert operation on a linked queue, which contains client number and client name. Consider the following definition of NODE in the code of QINSERT ( ). Delhi 2013

struct NODE 
{
long int Cno;    //Client number
char Cname[20];    //Client name
NODE *Next;
};

Аnswer:

void QINSERT()
{
NODE *P = new Node;
cout<<"Enter the Client Number and Name:";
cin>>P- Cno;
gets(P->Cname) ;
P->Next=NULL;
if((front ~ NULL)&&(rear == NULL))
{
front=rear=P;
}
else
{
rear->Next = P; 
rear = P;
}
}

Question 6:
Given the necessary declaration of linked implemented Queue containing players information (as defined in the following definition of Node). Also, write a user defined function in C++ to delete one Player’s information from the Queue.
Delhi 2013C

struct Node 
{
int PlayerNo; 
char PIayerName[20];
Node *Link;
};

Аnswer:

void Delete_NODE()
{
NODE *P;
if(front == Null)
cout<<"Queue is empty";
else if(front == rear) 
{
P = front;
cout<<"Deleted Node information is"; 
cout<<P->PlayerNo; 
puts(p->PlayerName); 
front = rear = NULL; 
delete P;
}
else
{
P = front;
cout<<"Deleted Node information is"; 
cout<<P->PlayerNo; 
puts(P->PlayerName); 
front = front->Link; 
delete P;
}
}

Question 7:
Write a function in C++ to perform insert operation in a dynamic queue containing DVD’s information (represented with the help of an array of structure DVD). Delhi 2012

struct DVD 
{
long No; 
char title[20];
DVD *Link;
};

Аnswer:

void Insert()
{
DVD *p = new DVD; 
cout<<"Enter the DVD number and Title";
cin<<p->No; 
gets(p->title);
p->Link = NULL; 
if((front — NULL) && (rear == NULL))
{
front - rear = p;
}
else
{
rear->Link = p; 
rear = p;
}
}

Question 8:
Write a function in C++ to perform insert operation in a static circular queue containing book’s information (represented with the help of an array of structure BOOK). All India 2012

struct BOOK  
{ 
long AccNo; //Book account number 
char Title[20]; //Book Title
};

Аnswer:

void circularQueInsert(BOOK B[], int Front, int Rear, int Max)
{
if((Rear=Max-l && Front ==0)||(Front == Rear +1))
{
cout<<"Circular Queue is full"; 
exit(O);
}
else if(Front == -1 && Rear == -1)
{
Front = Rear = 0;
}
else if(Rear = Max -1 && Front >0)
{
Rear = 0;
}
else
Rear = Rear+1; 
cout<<"Enter book account number and title"; 
cin>>B[Rear].AccNo; 
gets(B[Rear].Title);
}

Question 9:
Write a function in C++ to perform insert operation on a dynamically allocated queue containing passenger details as given in the following definition of NODE; Delhi 2011

struct NODE 
{
long Pno; //Passenger Number 
char Pname[20]; //Passenger Name 
NODE *Link;
};

Аnswer:

void Enter()
{
NODE *nptr=new NODE;
nptr->Link = NULL;
cout<<"Enter name and number for new passenger";
gets(nptr->Pname); 
cin>>nptr->Pno; 
if(rear == NULL)
{
front = rear = nptr;
}
else
{
rear->Link = nptr; 
rear = nptr;
}
}

Question 10:
Write a function in C++ to perform delete operation on a dynamically allocated queue containing passenger details as given in the following definition of NODE: All India 2011

struct NODE 
{
long Mno; //Member Number 
char Mname[20]; //Member Name 
NODE *Link;
};

Аnswer:

void remove(NODE *front)
{
NODE *nptr; 
if(front == NULL) 
{
cout<<"Queue is empty";
}
else 
{
nptr = front; 
front = front->Link; 
if(front == NULL) 
rear = NULL; 
delete nptr;
}

Question 11:
Write a complete program in C++ to implement a dynamically allocated queue containing names of cities. All India 2010
Аnswer:

#include<iostream.h>
#include<string.h> 
struct Node 
{
char city[30];
Node *link;
};
class queue 
{
Node *front, *rear; 
public:
queue() {front=rear=NULL;} 
void add_Q();    //add queue
void del_Q();    //delete queue
void show_Q();    //show queue
};
void queue :: add_Q()
{
Node *temp = new Node; 
char ct[30]; 
cout<<"Enter city"; 
gets(ct);
strcpy(temp->city,ct); 
temp->link = NULL; 
if(rear == NULL)
front = rear = temp; 
else
{
rear->link = temp; 
rear = temp;
}
}
void queue :: del_Q()
{
Node *temp; 
char ct[20]; 
if(front == NULL)
{
cout<<"queue is empty";
}
else   
{
temp = front; 
front = front->link; 
strcpy(ct, temp->city); 
cout<<"Deleted values are"<<ct; 
delete temp;
}
if(front == NULL)
rear = front;
}
void queue :: show_Q()
{
Node *temp = front; 
cout<<"The queue elements are"; 
while(temp!=NULL)
{
cout<<"n"<<temp->city; 
temp = temp->l ink;
}
}
void main()
{
int choice; 
queue QUEUE; 
char opt='Y'; 
do 
{
cout<<"nMain Menu"; 
cout<<"nl.Insertion in queue"; 
cout<<"n2.Deletion from queue"; 
cout<<"n3.Traversal of queue"; 
cout<<"n4.Exit from queue"; 
cout<<"nEnter your choice from above(1,2,3,4)"; 
cin<<choice; 
switch(choice)
{
case 1: 
do 
{
QUEUE.add_Q(); 
cout<<"ndo you want to add more elements<Y/N>?"; 
cin>>opt;
}
while(toupper(opt)=='Y'); 
break; 
case 2: 
do 
{
QUEUE.del_Q(); 
cout<<"ndo you want to delete more elements<Y/N>?";
cin>>opt;
}
whi1e(toupper(opt)== 'Y'); 
break; 
case 3:
QUEUE.show_Q(); 
break; 
case 4; 
exit(0);
}
}
while(choice!=4);
}

Question 12:
Write a function QUEINS( ) in C++ to insert an element in a dynamically allocated queue containing nodes of the following given structure: Delhi 2009

struct Node
{
int Pid;     //Product Id
char Pname[20];   //Product Name 
Node *Next; 
};

Аnswer:

void QUEINS(Node *rear, int val, char valid)
{
Node *temp=new Node; 
temp->Pid = val; 
strcpy(temp->Pname,val1); 
temp->Next = NULL; 
if(rear == NULL)
rear = front = temp; 
else
{
rear->Next = temp; 
rear = temp;
}
}

Question 13:
Write a function QUEDEL( ) in C++ to display and delete an element in a dynamically allocated queue containing nodes of the following given structure: All India 2009

struct Node 
{
int Itemno; 
char Itemname[30];
Node *Link;
};

Аnswer:

void QUEDEL(Node *front)
{
Node *temp; 
if(front == NULL)
cout<<"Queue is Empty"; 
else
{
temp = front; 
cout<<"deleted item="; 
cout<<front->Itemno; 
cout<<front->Itemname; 
front = front->Link; 
if(front == NULL) 
rear = NULL; 
delete temp;
}
}

Computer ScienceImportant Questions for Computer ScienceNCERT Solutions

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What is Democracy? Why Democracy? Class 9 Important Questions Social Science Civics Chapter 2

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 2 What is Democracy? Why Democracy?

What is Democracy? Why Democracy? Class 9 Important Questions Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is representative democracy?
Answer:
Under representative democracy all the people do not rule or take decisions but a majority or elected representatives are allowed to take decisions on behalf of all the people.

Question 2.
Which is the most common form of democracy in today’s world?
Answer:
Representative Democracy.

Question 3.
Name any two characteristics of democracy.
Answer:

• People choose their rulers.
• People have freedom to express their views.

Question 4.
Why are quality decisions a possibility in a democracy?
Answer:
A democratic decision always involves many persons, discussions and meetings.

Question 5.
Whose rule is democracy considered to be?
Answer:
People’s rule e.g., Salvador Allende’s rule in Chile.

Question 6.
With whom does the final decision-making power rest in a democracy?
Answer:
Elected representatives of the people.

Question 7.
Under which form of government political equality given importance?
Answer:
Democratic.

Question 8.
In spite of having a vast social diversity, what keeps the people of India together?
Answer:
Democracy.

Question 9.
What should be done in a democracy if mistakes are committed?
Answer:
There should be public discussion on these mistakes.

Question 10.
When do we say that elections are fair?
Answer:
The elections must offer a real choice between political alternatives.

Question 11.
‘In a democracy, the majority of the people rule through their elected representatives.’ Give reasons. HOTS
Answer:

• Modem democracies involve such a large number of people that it is physically impossible for them to sit together, and take a collective decision.
• Even if they could, the citizen does not have the time, the desire or the skills to take part in all the decisions.

Question 12.
How does democracy in a country enhance the dignity of an individual? State three points.
Answer:

• Democracy is based on the principle of political equality. So all the citizens whether rich or poor, educated or uneducated have the same status.
• People are not subjects of a ruler, they are the rulers themselves.
• The ruler has to rule or work according to the wishes and the needs of the people. If the people do not like the ruler they can change him through election.

Question 13.
When does a citizen have an equal role in decision-making?
Answer:
If a decision involves many persons, discussions and meetings.

Question 14.
What is Referendum?
Answer:
A direct vote in which the entire electorate is asked to either accpet or reject a proposal.

Question 15.
When did the World Trade Organization set up?
Answer:
1955.

Question 16.
Which form of government is considered nbn-democratic?
Answer:
Military rule or monarchy.

Question 17.
By whom was the ‘Legal Framework Order’ issued in Pakistan?
Answer:
General Pervez Musharraf.

Question 18.
After how many yeafcs does Mexico hold elections for electing its president? ‘
Answer:
After every six years.

Question 19.
During which period did China record its worst famine in the I world’s history?
Answer:
During 1958-1961.

Question 20.
Before contesting elections in China, whose approval does a candidate need to have?
Answer:
The Chinese Communist Party.

Question 21.
Which country does not give voting rights to minorities?
Answer:
Estonia.

Question 22.
By whom is the President of China appointed?
Answer:
Members of the National People’s Congress.

Question 23.
Name any two countries where free and fair elections are not held.
Answer:
China and Mexico.

What is Democracy? Why Democracy? Class 9 Important Questions Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define Democracy. Sate two merits and demerits of democracy.
Answer:
Democracy is a form of government which is chosen by the people to work for their welfare and can be changed by them.
Merits:

• Democracy is the best form of government as the rulers are accountable to the people and have to fulfil their needs.
• Democracy is based on consultation and discussion. This reduces the chance of hasty and irresponsible decisions from being taken and improves the quality of decision making.

Demerits:

• Leaders keep changing in democracy. This leads to instability.
• Democracy is all about political competition and power play. There is no scope for morality.

Question 2.
How elections in India are different from Mexico?
Answer:

• Both the countries have a multi-party system. In case of India, political parties in power often loose elections whereas in case of Mexico PRI did not loose a single election for more than 70 years.
• Elections in India are held after every 5 years whereas in case of Mexico elections are held after 6 years.
• Government officials work under the Election Commission during the election days whereas this is not true for Mexico.

Question 3.
Assess any three conditions that apply to the way a democratic government is run after the elections.
Answer:

• People should have the freedom to express their views. They should have freedom to form associations and to protest also.
• Country is governed by the constitutional law. Everyone should be equal in the eye of law.
• People’s rights should be respected and it must be protected by an independent judiciary whose orders are obeyed by everyone.

Question 4.
What does direct democracy imply? Why can it not be practised in the present day world?
Answer:
(i) Direct democracy implies to the democracy in which every citizen must be able to play equal role in decision-making.
(ii) (a) Modern democracies involve such a large number of people that it is physically not possible for them to sit together and take a collective decision. Even the majority does not rule directly but through their elected representatives.
(b) Moreover, the citizen does not have the time, the desire or the skills to take part in all the decisions.

Question 5.
‘Democracy is all about political competition and powerplay. There is no scope for morality’. Justify the statement by giving arguments against democracy.
Answer:

• Political parties and candidates use all the dirty tricks to win elections.
• Many of them use money and muscle power during the elections.
• Political parties or candidates demand votes on the basis of caste, religion etc.

Question 6.
Explain the major features of democracy.
Answer:

• Final Authority with the People’s Representatives: In a democracy the final decision-making power must rest with those elected by the people.
• Free and Fair Elections: A democracy must be based on a free and fair elections where those currently in power have a fair chance of losing.
• One Person, One Vote, One Value: In a democracy, each adult citizen must have one vote and each vote must have one value.
• Rule of Law and Respect for Rights: A democratic government rules within limits set by constitutional law and citizen’s rights.

Question 7.
‘Democracy improves the quality of decision-making.’ Explain. VBQ
Answer:

• Democracy is based on consultation and discussion.
• A democratic decision always involves many persons, discussions and meetings. When a number of people put their heads together, they are able to point out possible mistakes in any decision.
• As most of the decisions are taken by discussions, this reduces the chances of rash or irresponsible decisions.
• If the decision is not according to the wishes of the people, they have the right to protest, and even can force the government to withdraw it.

Question 8.
“Democracy is better than other forms of government because it allows us to correct its own mistakes.” Explain. HOTS
Answer:
There is no guarantee that mistakes cannot be made in a democracy. No form of government can guarantee that. The advantage in a democracy is that such mistakes cannot be hidden for long. There is a space for public discussion on these mistakes. And there is a room for correction. Either the rulers have to change their decisions, or the rulers can be changed. This cannot happen in a non-democratic government.

Question 9.
Why is democracy called a “Government by discussion”?
Answer:

• Democracy provides all the citizens some basic rights through which they can give their opinion.
• Democracy provides h chance to all the citizens to choose their representatives, and change them, if they do not work according to their wishes.
• In the Parliament, all the members have the right to give their opinions,
• Democracy provides the citizens a right to follow any religion.

Question 10.
Which is the most common form of democracy? Why is this form of democracy necessary?
Answer:
The most common form of democracy is representative democracy.

• Modern democracies involve such a large number of people that it is physically impossible for them to sit together, and take a collective decision.
• Even if they could, the citizen does not have the time, the desire or the skills to take part in all the decisions.

Question 11.
‘Is it good to elect a President for life or is it better to hold regular elections after every five years’? Express your view with reasons to support them.
Answer:
No, it is not good to elect a President for life. But, it is certainly better to hold regular elections after every five years.
Reasons:

• Regular elections provide an opportunity to the people to change the government if it does not act as per the wishes of the people.
• Regular and fair election is an important aspect of democracy.

Question 12.
“A democratic government is a better government because it is a more accountable form of government.” Explain.
Answer:

• Democratic government is an accountable government i.e., it is responsible for its actions, decisions and policies including the administration. The government is answerable to the Parliament or we can say to the people. If government is not working according to the needs and expectations of the citizens the Parliament can move a no confidence motion against the government.
• More than three crqre people lost their life in 1958-61 famine in China but India, whose economic condition was poorer as compared to China, did not have a famine of the kind China had.
• The existence of democracy in India made the Indian government respond to food security in a way that the Chinese government did not.

Question 13.
Consider the following facts about a country and decide if you would call it a democracy. Give reasons to support your decision.
(i) All the citizens of the country have right to vote. Elections are held regularly.
(ii) The country took loan from international agencies. One of the conditions for giving loan was that the government would reduce its expenses on education and health.
(iii) People speak more than seven languages but education is available only in one language, the language spoken by 52 per cent people of that country.
(iv) Several organisations have given a call for peaceful demonstrations and nation wide strikes in the country to oppose these policies. Government has arrested these leaders.
(v) The government owns the radio and television in the country.‘All the newspapers have to get permission from the government to publish any news about government’s policies and protests.
Answer:
(i) Where citizens have the right to vote and elections are held regularly, it is democracy. But elections should be free and fair. In India democracy exist because elections are held free and fair.
(ii) It is democratic. Simply by taking loan from international agency the democratic government does not became undemocratic.
(iii) It is not democratic. In a democracy education should be given in a language spoken by the students.
(iv) It is not democratic. People have a right to protest against the policies of government. Peaceful demonstrations and nation wide strikes are democratic method of protest.
(v) It is undemocratic. For democracy it is essential that radio and television should be autonomous.

Question 14.
Why was every election won by the party called PRI in China? Explain any three reasons.
Answer:
Every election won by the party called PRI in China because:

• Until 2000, every election was won by the dominant party called PRI.
• In its presence, opposition parties did contest elections, but never managed to win.
• The PRI was known to use many dirty tricks to win elections.

Question 15.
Citizens of a non-democratic nation can bring about a change in the political system of the country. Write any three traits which can help them to do so.
Answer:
Traits are:

• They should be allowed to actively participate in the politics.
• They can form associations. They can protest and take other political actions.
•  They can express opinions in public.

Question 16.
“Elections in China do not represent people’s verdict”. Explain. HOTS
Answer:

• In China, elections are regularly held after every five years, for electing the country’s Parliament, called Quanguo Renmin Daibiao Dahui (National People’s Congress). ,
• The National People’s Congress has the power to appoint the President of the country.
• It has nearly 3,000 members elected from all over China. Some members are elected by the army.
• Before contesting elections, a candidate needs the approval of the Chinese Communist Party.
• Only those, who are member’s of the Chinese Communist Party or eight smaller parties allied to it were allowed to contest elections held in 2002-03.
• The government is always formed by the Communist Party.

Question 17.
Distinguish between a democracy and a good democracy on three points.
Answer:

S.No.	Democracy	Good Democracy
(i)	A democratic government is government which is elected by the people.	A good democracy is a government which is elected by the people and people take part in all the decisions.
(ii)	In a democracy regular elections are held.	In a good democracy regular free and fair elections are held.
(iii)	In a democracy there is political equality.	In a good democracy along with political there is economic as well as social equality.

Question 18.
Distinguish between democratic and non-democratic elections.
Answer:

S.No.	Democratic Elections	Non-democratic Elections
(i)	Under democratic elections, all citizens have one vote with equal value.	Under this, all citizens are not given right to vote.
(ii)	Elections are held at regular intervals.	Elections are not held at regular intervals.
(iii)	Free and fair elections are conducted.	Free and fair elections are not conducted.

What is Democracy? Why Democracy? Class 9 Important Questions Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
With the help of an example, prove that a democratic government is a more accountable form of government.
Answer:
We can take the example of India. In India, the government is accountable to the citizens.
(i) Government policies in India are based on the democratic values.
(ii) It is able to respond to the needs of the people.
(iii) It holds multi-party elections.
(iv) It has opposition parties to criticize the government.
(v) Democracy ensures that decision-making will be based on norms and procedures. So, a citizen who wants to know if a decision was taken through the correct procedures can find it out. This is known as transparency. So, this shows democracy produces a government which follows the procedures and is accountable to the government.
(vi) A democratic government rules within limits set by constitutional law and citizen’s right.
(vii) Democracy provides a method to deal with difference and conflicts. It is suitable in countries like India. India has diversity of language, religion and culture.
(viii) It is better than other forms of government because it allows us to correct our own tnistakes.
(ix) Democracy also increases the dignity of the citizens, because it is based on the principle oApolitical equality. This means that the poorest and the least educated have the same status as the rich and educated.

Question 2.
“Democracy is the most popular form of government emerging in the modem times, still the shortcomings cannot be ruled out.” Justify the statement by assessing any five shortcomings of democracy. HOTS
Answer:

• Instability: Under democracy, leaders and political parties keep changing. This leads to political instability.
• Low Morality: Democracy is all about political competition and power play. There is no scope for morality.
• Delays in Decision Making: All the decisions are to be approved and discussed in the Parliament, and many people and institutions are to be consulted. So it leads to delays in decision making.
• Bad Decisions: As most of the leaders do not know the best interest, of the people, it leads to bad decisions.
• Corruption: As the democracy is based on electoral competition, it leads to corruption. Many political parties use muscle and money power to come to power.
• Illiterate and Politically Unconscious Voters: In most of the developing countries, voters are illiterate and politically unconscious, so they elect wrong candidates.

Question 3.
Why is democracy considered to be the best option among all other political systems available in world? Explain.
Answer:

• Accountable Government: Democracy is better than any other form of government because it represents the needs of the people. It does not depend on the whims of the ruler or the dictator. In simple words, we can say that democracy is for the people. It is an accountable form of government.
• Based on Consultation Discussion: Democracy is based on consultation and discussion. As such many mistakes are corrected in time. Thus, democracy improves the quality of decision making.
• Deals with Differences: Democracy provides a peaceful solution to every problem. It provides the best method of dealing with differences and conflicts. It suits the needs of many countries like India with diversity of languages, religions, castes and creeds. Discussions lead to the solution of every problem, so it keeps our country united.
• Political Equality: Democracy is based on political equality which ensures equal rights, both for the rich and the poor, the educated and the uneducated. Thus, in a way, democracy enhances the dignity of every citizen.
• Room for Correction: It is only in democracy that mistakes are admitted, and all attempts are made to correct these mistakes. If mistakes are made, it is only in democracy that they are admitted and then corrected. In democracy, thus, there is a room for correction.
• Democracy provides the opportunity to the citizens to flourish according to their ability.

Question 4.
Explain the major features of democratic governments.
Answer:

• Responsible .Government: Democratic government is a responsible government. The representatives elected by the people on the basis of universal Vdult franchise remain responsible to the people and in case they do not remain responsible before the people, the people can change them during the next elections.
• Possibility of Good Laws: In a democratic government, the representatives have a direct relation with the people. Therefore, they properly understand their problems and interests. They properly represent the interest of the people in the assemblies, and the parliament and always try to get the good laws passed.
• Political Education: The greatest merit of democracy is its educative value. Participation in elections and other political activities, make the people intelligent and politically conscious. They become enlightened citizens.
• Based on Liberty and Fraternity: In democracy, the rights and the liberty of the people are well safeguarded. People are given freedom to express their views without any fear. They can criticise the wrong policies of the government.
• Respect of the Principle of Equality: In democracy, all are equal in the eyes of law, and no discrimination is done on the basis of birth, race, caste, colour, sex, religion, etc. All citizens get equal opportunities to participate in the affairs of the state.
• Government Based on the Will of the People: Democracy is based on the will of the people, and it functions according to their consent. The Government cannot ignore the interest of the people.

Question 5.
Which characteristics make democratic government so popular?
Answer:

• Accountable Government: Democracy is better than any other form of government because it represents the needs of the people. It does not depend on the whims of the ruler or the dicator. In simple words, we can say that democracy is for the poeple. It is an accountable form of government.
• Based on Consultation and Discussion: Democracy is based on consultation and discussion. As such many mistakes are corrected in time. Thus, democracy imporoves the quality of decision making.
• Deals with Differences: Democracy provides a peaceful solution to every problem. It provides the best method of dealing with differences and conflicts. It suits the needs of many countries like India with diversity of languages, religions, castes and creeds. Discussions lead to the soultion of every problem, so it keeps our country united.
• Political Equality: Democracy is based on political equality which ensures equal rights, both for the rich and the poor, the educated and the uneducated. Thus, in a way, democracy enhances the dignity of every citizen.

Question 6.
“Though democracy is considered to be the best form of government, it is not an ideal form of government.” Give five arguments to prove the above statement.
Answer:

• It is not an ideal form of government because every citizen does not play equal role m decision-making. Even the majority does not rule directly. But, it rules through their elected representatives.
• Democracy provide only political equality but people also need social and economic equality.
• An ideal government is a government which is not run by few powerful people.
• An ideal government is free of corruption.
• An ideal government is a government where there is a gender equality.

Question 7.
Explain the representative democracy. Why is the representative democracy the most common form of government in modem times? Explain any four reasons.
Answer:
(i) When the majority of people rule through their elected representatives, this is called representative democracy.
(ii)

• The most common form that democracy takes in our times is that of a representative democracy. In a democracy, all the people do not rule. Direct rule by people is not possible.
• So, in a democracy, the majority is allowed to take decisions on
  behalf of all the people. Even the majority does not rule directly. It rules through its elected representatives.
• A representative democracy becomes necessary. Modem democracies comprise a large number of people. It is physically impossible for them to sit or collect together at a place and take a collective decision.
• Even if they could collect together, all the citizens do not have the time, the desire, or the skills to take part in all the decisions.

Question 8.
Write any five arguments in favour and five against democracy as a form of government.
Answer:
Arguments in Favour of Democracy:

• Democratic form of government is accountable.
• It improves the quality of decision making.
• It provides a method to deal with differences and conflicts.
• It enhances the dignity of citizen.
• It allows us to correct our mistakes.

Arguments Against Democracy:

• Change of leaders lead to instability.
• It involves only political competition with no scope for morality.
• Consulting more people leads to delays.
• It leads to corruption.
• Ordinary people don’t know that what is good for them.

Question 9.
Write some common features of the non-democratic countries.
Answer:
Some common features of the non-democratic countries are:
(i) In non-democratic countries, the people are not allowed to criticise the government. Doing so means imprisonment, harassment and trouble one after the other.

(ii) In non-democratic countries, the rule of the king or the so-called military rule prevails and the question of elections does not arise.

(iii) In non-democratic countries, no opposition is tolerated. So the question of political parties, especially of the opposition parties does not arise. Only those political parties can survive which toe to the line of the government.

(iv) In non-democratic countries, the workers are not allowed to form their independent trade unions. Only such trade unions can survive, who rightly or wrongly, support the policies of the government.

(v) In non-democratic countries, all the people are at the mercy of the dictator or the military rulers. Anybody can be detained, arrested or even put to death without any trial.

(vi) In non-democratic countries, nobody can even aspire for any big post. If he is ready to be a tool in the hands of the ruler/ dictator/military leaders, he can hope to get some good post. But he will have to kill his conscience and become dumb and deaf.

Question 10.
Why is Zimbabwe not considered a democratic country?
Answer:
(i) Same Party Ruling: Zimbabwe attained independence from white minority rule in 1980. Since then the country has been ruled by the party ZANU-PF. Its leader Robert Mugabe, has been ruling the country since independence.

(ii) Unfair Elections: Elections have been held regularly and . always won by the ruling party. They have not been free and fair.

(iii) Change of Constitution to Favour the Government: President Mugabe appears to be popular but also uses unfair practices in elections. His government has changed the Constitution several times to increase the power of the President and make him less accountable.

(iv) Suppression of Opposition: Opposition party workers are often harassed and their meetings disrupted by ruling party.

(v) Right to Freedom Missing: Public protests and demonstrations against the government are declared illegal. There is a law that limits the right to criticise the President. Television and radio are controlled by the government.

(vi) Absence of Independent Judiciary: The government has ignored some court judgements that went against it and has pressurised judges.

Question 11.
How far was the communist government responsible for the famine that occurred in China in 1958-1961? Explain.
Answer:
China’s famine of 1958-1961 was the worst recorded famine in the world history. Nearly three crore people died in this famine. During those days, India’s economic condition was not much better than China. Yet India did not have a famine of the kind China. Economists think that this was a result of different government policies in the two countries. The existence of democracy in India made the Indian government respond to food scarcity in a way that the Chinese government did not. They point out that no large-scale famine has ever taken place in an independent and democratic country, If China too had multi parti elections, an opposition party and a press free to criticize the government, then so many people may not have died in the famine.

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science

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RD Sharma Class 7 solutions Chapter 11 Percentage Exercise 11.4 Q1

NCERT SolutionsMathsScienceSocialEnglishSanskritHindiRD Sharma

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RD Sharma Class 7 solutions Chapter-11 Percentage Exercise-11.6 Q10

NCERT SolutionsMathsScienceSocialEnglishSanskritHindiRD Sharma

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Political Science Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 10 Challenges of Nation Building is part of Political Science Class 12 Important Questions. Here we have given Political Science Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 10 Challenges of Nation Building.

Political Science Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 10 Challenges of Nation Building

1 Mark Questions

Question 1.
Name the leader of the freedom movement of India who was popularly known as Frontier Gandhi. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan.

Question 2.
Name the leader who played a historic role in negotiating with the rulers of princely states to join the Indian Union. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

Question 3.
Mention the main recommendation of the State Reorganisation Commission of 1953. (All India 2014)
OR
What was the basis of the report of the States Reorganisation Commission? (All India 2012)
Answer:
The basis of report of the States Reorganisation Commission was that the boundaries of the states should reflect boundaries of different languages.

Question 4.
What is the ‘Two Nation Theory’ advanced by Muslim League? (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
According to the ‘Two-Nation Theory’, India consisted of not one but two ‘people’, Hindus and Muslims. That is why it demanded Pakistan, a separate country for the Muslims.

Question 5.
Which four princely states of India initially resisted to join the Indian Union? (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Princely states of Junagadh, Hyderabad, Kashmir and Manipur initially resisted to join the Indian Union.

Question 6.
What was the huge obstacle in nation building at the time of India’s independence? (Delhi 2011)
OR
What was the biggest obstacle in nation building at the time of India’s independence? (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
The huge obstacle in nation building at the time of India’s independence was to shape a nation that was united, yet accommodative of the diversity in our society.

Question 7.
Why were the states reorganised on linguistic basis in India in 1956? (HOTS; Delhi 2011)
Answer:
The states were reorganised on linguistic basis under the pressure of people and leaders and also it helped to preserve the diverse culture of India.

Question 8.
Which two princely states refused to join either Pakistan or India at the time of Independence? (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
Hyderabad, Junagadh and Kashmir refused to join either Pakistan or India at the time of Independence.

Question 9.
What do you understand by ‘instrument of accession’? (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
The ‘Instrument of accession’ was a legal document created in 1947. It was executed by Government of India to princely states which was signed by most of the rulers.

Question 10.
When and by whom was the ‘tryst with destiny’ speech delivered? (Delhi, 2010)
Answer:
‘Tryst with destiny’ speech was delivered by JawAllar Lai Nehru at midnight on 14th-15 th August, 1947.

Question 11.
Which theory was behind the partition of India in 1947? (Delhi 2009)
Answer:
The two-nation theory of Muslim League was behind the partition of India in 1947.

Question 12.
How many princely states were in India at the time of its independence? (Delhi (C) 2008)
Answer:
At the time of Independence there were 565 princely states in India.

Question 13.
Where was the ‘Tryst with Destiny’ speech delivered by Pt. Nehru? (All India (C) 2008)
Answer:
Pt. Nehru delivered ‘Tryst with Destiny’ speech from Red Fort, Delhi on 15th August, 1947.

Question 14.
Give the name of two provinces which were also divided during the partition of India? (All India 2008)
Answer:
The two provinces which were divided during the partition of India were Punjab and Bengal.

Question 15.
Why did the leaders of the National Movement cherish the ideal of the secular nation? Give any one reason. (HOTS; All India 2008)
Answer:
The leaders of the National Movement cherished the ideal of the secular nation because they knew that India i.e. Bharat is a land of many religions and faiths. So, in order to survive as a unified country India had to follow secular ideals.

2 Marks Questions

Question 1.
Analyse the two political developments of 1940s that led to the decision for the creation of Pakistan, (HOTS; Delhi 2016)
Answer:
During 1940s in India, there were many political developments which led to the decision for the creation of Pakistan.
Two prominent among them were :

1. The political competition between the Congress and the Muslim League was taking place. The Congress wanted to make a nation that reflect democratic government, whereas the Muslim League propounded Two-Nation Theory to gain power and status for minority community in politics.
2. The British were also playing their role of ‘divide and rule policy’ and accepted the Two-Nation Theory for partition of India. Thus, in 1947 the two-nation i.e. India and Pakistan came into existence.

Question 2.
While the rest of the country was reorganised on linguistic lines in 1950s, why had Punjab to wait till 1966? (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Except Punjab rest of the country was reorganised on linguistic lines in 1950s. Punjab had to wait till 1966 due to following reasons :

• In Punjab, there were two linguistic groups, Hindi-speaking and Punjabi-speaking.
• The Punjabi-speaking people demanded a separate state. Finally in 1966 Haryana and Himachal Pradesh were separated from Punjab.

Question 3.
Identify any two consequences of the partition of India in 1947. (All India 2014)
OR
Highlight any two outcomes of partition or division of India into India and Pakistan, (All India, (C) 2008)
Answer:
Two consequences of the partition of India in 1947 are following:

• There were killings and atrocities on both sides of the border.
• Political division of the country led to the administrative failure.

Question 4.
What is meant by ‘Two Nation Theory’? (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
The ‘Two Nation Theory’ means the cultural, political, religious, economic and social dissimilarities between the two major communities living in India; Hindus and Muslim. This theory gave rise the demand of two separate countries/nations one for Muslims (Pakistan) and one for Hindus (India).

Question 5.
Name the original states from which the following states were carved out.
(i) Meghalaya
(ii) Gujarat (All India 2012)
Answer:
Meghalaya was carved out from Assam in 1972. Gujarat was carved out from Bombay state in 1960.

Question 6.
What two challenges were faced by India at the time of her independence? (Delhi 2012; 2008 (C); All India 2010)
OR
Mention any two challenges that India faced just after independence. (Delhi 2012)
OR
Mention any two challenges that India faced just after independence. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
The two challenges faced by India just after independence were:

• Challenge to shape a nation which is accommodative of the diversity in our society.
• Challenge to establish democracy.
• Challenge to ensure development and well-being of the entire society.

Question 7.
What was meant by princely states? How many princely states were there in India at the time of independence? (All India 2011)
Answer:
During colonial period there were several large and small states ruled by princes were called Princely States. There were 565 princely states at the time of independence.

Question 8.
Explain the role played by Sardar Patel in the unification of princely states in India. (Delhi 2011, 2009)
OR
Mention the role of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel towards India’s integration. (Delhi 2009)
Answer:
Sardar Patel played following roles in the unification of princely states in India

• He procured letter of accession from the princely states through diplomacy and negotiation.
• He used force and persuation with the states of Hyderabad, Junagadh, Manipur and Kashmir for their merger.

4 Marks Questions

Question 1.
What does the special status given to Jammu and Kashmir under Article 370 mean? (All India 2014)
Answer:
After partition Hari Singh, the Hindu ruler of Kashmir signed an ‘Instrument of Accession’ with the Government of India. Sheikh AbdullAll who was against joining Pakistan, became the Prime Minister and Indian Government agreed to maintain the autonomy of Jammu and Kashmir. Jammu and Kashmir was given a special status in Article 370 of Indian Constitution.

Jammu and Kashmir is included in the first schedule as one of the states after signing the instrument of Accession. Article 370 says that except defence, foreign affairs, communication and ancillary matters, the Indian Parliament needs the permission of State Government’s for applying all other laws.

Article 370 grant special autonomous status to the State of Jammu and Kashmir. Thus, the state has separate set of law, including those related to citizenship, ownership of property and Fundamental Rights.

Question 2.
How did the state of Hyderabad became a part of the Indian Union after partition? (HOTS; All India 2009)
Answer:
Hyderabad, the largest of the princely states covered almost l/3rd part of South India. Nizam signed Standstill Agreement with the Government of India and state emerged as an independent state after India’s independence. Many movements took place in Hyderabad; State specially in Telangana region where many peasants were victimised and oppressed by Nizans

Nizam sent his para-military force, Razakars. Razakars murdered, raped and looted particularly the non-Muslims. Therefore, Central Government ordered the army to tackle the situation on 13th September, 1948, Indian army marched in Hyderabad and on the 17th September, 1948. Hyderabad surrendered. This way Hyderabad became a part of the Indian Union after partition.

Question 3.
What was the approach of the Government of India towards the princely states immediately after the partition of India in 1947? All India 2009
Answer:
At the time of India’s independence, there were 565 princely states. Immediately after partition communal violence was at its culmination. In this environment, the government’s approach towards princely states was guided by following three considerations:

1. Firstly, the people of most of the princely states clearly wanted to become part of the Indian union.
2. Secondly, the government was prepared to be flexible in giving autonomy to some regions. The idea was to accommodate plurality and adopt a flexible approach in dealing with the demands of the regions.
3. Thirdly, in the backdrop of partition which brought into focus the contest over demarcation of territory, the integration and consolidation of the territorial boundaries of the nation had assumed supreme importance.

Question 4.
Describe the outcomes of States Reorganisation Commission appointed in 1953. (Delhi 2009)
Answer:
The States Reorganisation Act was passed in 1956. This led to the creation of 14 states and 6 Union Territories. Earlier there were demands of separate states on the basis of linguistic line, but leaders did not support this.

Thereafter a lot of movements occurred and provinces suffered from it therefore under popular pressure, finally decision was taken in favour of linguistic states. It was hoped that if we accept the demand of linguistic claims then the separatism and division would be reduced. Thus, these divisions reflected the true democracy.

Question 5.
Describe briefly any four problems faced in the process of partition of India. (Delhi 2008)
Answer:
The major problems faced by India at the time of partition were as follows :

1. The country faced communal riots in almost every parts of India.
2. Problem of integration of the territories which were divided on the basis of language, religion and culture.
3. Problem of well being of the entire society particularly the minorities and other weaker sections.
4. Challenge to shape a nation which just got the independence.
5. Challenge to establish democracy and make a constitution for all.

Question 6.
Describe how the princely states of Manipur and Junagadh acceded to India. (All India 2008)
Answer:
Accession of Manipur After the independence in 1947, MAllaraja of Manipur Bodhachandra Singh, signed the Instrument of Accession with Indian Union on the assurance that the internal autonomy of Manipur would be maintained. Under the pressure of people of Manipur, MAllaraja held the election in June, 1948 and state became a constitutional monarchy.

Thus, Manipur was the first state to hold an election on the basis of adult franchise. The legislators of the regional parties of Manipur did not want to merge with India but state Congress wanted to.

Government of India pressurised the Manipur MAllaraja and succeeded to do so. MAllaraja accepted the agreement and signed it without consulting the Legislative Assembly. This led to lot of anger and resentment in Manipur, the repercussions of which are still being felt.

Accession of Junagadh In case of Junagadh, the Nawab of Junagadh wanted to merge with Pakistan or wanted to remain independent. The people of Junagadh wanted to merge with Indian Union. This lead to several events and also a plebiscits which resulted in the integration of Junagadh into India.

The successful negotiations brought many states to sign Instrument of Accession which means that states wanted to accept the sovereignty of India.

6 Marks Questions

Question 1.
Analyse any six consequences of the partition of India in 1947. (HOTS; All India 2016)
OR
Assess any six consequences of the partition of British India in 1947. (Delhi 2014)
OR
Explain any three consequences of partition of British India in 1947. (Delhi 2013)
OR
Explain any two causes of the partition of India in 1947. Analyse its any four major consequences. (Delhi 2011)
OR
Assess any two causes of the partition of India in 1947. Explain any four of its consequences. (All India 2010)
OR
What were the consequences of partition of India in 1947? (All India 2008)
Answer:
Muslim League advanced ‘Two-Nation Theory’ which advocated India consisted of not one but two ‘people’, Hindus and Muslims. That is why Muslim League demanded Pakistan, a separate country for the Muslims. The two main causes of partition in 1947 were as follows :

• Political competition between the Congress and the Muslim League.
• The role of Britishers in dividing the Hindus and Muslims by their policy of ‘divide and rule’.

The consequences of partition of India in 1947 are as follows:
1. Division of provinces according to majority The implementation of partition was very difficult because there was no single belt of Muslims majority in British India. The concentration of Muslims were in Punjab which was in the West and Bengal which was in East. The problems lied in these areas as concentration of non-Muslims were more. Therefore, it was decided that these two provinces would be bifurcated according to the majority at the district or even lower level.

2. Exploitation of minorities Further there were problems with the minorities on both side of the borders, they were easily targeted and there was no option except to leave their own land and homes and go across the border.

This transfer is said to be most abrupt, largest and unplanned transfer known in the human history. There were killings and atrocities on both sides of border in the name of religion. The minorities on both sides fled from their homes and often secured temporary shelter in refugee camps. Even they were not safe in refugee camps so, they travelled to the other side by all means railways, roads and by foot.

3. Exploitation of women During this journey, women were oftf n attacked and killed. Women were abdi cted and raped and also forcefully conve :ted to other religion. Therefore, family members killed their girls and women. 80 lakh people migrated across the new border and between 5 to 10 lakh people were killed during partition. Thus, partition of India established the deep trauma within minds of the citizens.

4. Problem with refugee Those who did manage to cross the border found that they had no home. For lakhs of these ‘refugees’ the country’s freedom meant life in ‘refugees camps’, for months and sometimes for years.

5. Administrative failure There were competing political interests behind communal conflicts. The Muslim league was formed to protect the interests of the Muslims in colonial India. It was in the forefront of the demand for a separate Muslim nation. Similarly there were organisations, which were trying to organise the Hindus in order to turn India into a Hindu nation. This situation led to administrative failure in the country.

6. Distribution of financial assets The financial assets and things like tables, chairs, typewriters, paper-clips, books and also musical instruments of the police band were divided. The employees of the government and the railways were also ‘divided’. It was a violent separation of communities who had hitherto to lived together as neighbours.

Question 2.
“The accommodation of regional demands and the formation of linguistic states were also seen as more democratic.” Justify the statement with any three suitable arguments, (HOTS; Delhi 2016)
Answer:
This statement can be justified by following three arguments:

1. Regional aspirations are very much a part of democratic politics. Expression of regional issues is not an aberration or an abnormal phenomenon. A large and diverse democracy like India must deal with regional aspirations on a regular basis.
2. The best way to respond to regional aspirations is through democratic negotiations rather than through suppression.
3. Regional imbalance in economic development contributes to the feeling of regional discrimination. Regional imbalance is a fact of India’s development experience.

Question 3.
How did the reorganisation of states take place in India after its independence? Explain. (All India 2014)
OR
What forced the Union Government of India to appoint the States Reorganisation Commission in 1953? Mention its two main recommendations. Name any four new states formed after 1956. (Delhi 2014)
OR
Explain the process and basis of the Reorganisation of States of Indian Union. (Delhi 2013)
OR
What was the States Reorganisation Commission? When was it constituted? What was the most important recommendation of this commission? (Delhi 2010)
OR
What was the States Reorganisation Commission? What were its important recommendations? (Delhi to 2008)
Answer:
State Reorganisation Commission The formation of Andhra Pradesh spurred the struggle for making of other states on linguistic basis in other parts of the country. These struggle forced the Central Government into appointing a States Reorganisation Commission in 1953 to look into

Recommendations of State Reorganisation Commission were :

1. To look into the question of redrawing of the boundaries of states.
2. This commission in its report accepted that the boundaries of the state should reflect the boundaries different languages. On the basis of its report the States Reorganisation Act was passed in 1956.

Process and the basis of Reorganisation of States of Indian Union After partition the challenge was to draw the internal boundaries of the Indian states. The boundaries had to be drawn in a way so that the linguistic and cultural plurality of the country could be reflected without affecting the unity of the nation. Indian National Congress and many leaders recognised the linguistic principle as reorganisation of new states’ boundaries.

But our leader further felt that carving out states on the basis of language might lead to disruption and disintegration and would draw attention away from other social and economic challenges that the country faced.

Thus, protests began in the Telugu speaking areas of the old Madras province. The Vishalandhra Movement (the movement for a separate Andhra) demanded that the Telugu speaking areas should be separated from the Madras province and be made into a separate Andhra province.

The movement gathered momentum. Potti Sriramulu, a Congress leader and a Veteran Gandhian, went on an indefinite fast that led to his death after 56 days. This caused great unrest and resulted in violent outbursts in Andhra region. Finally, the Prime Minister announced the formation of a separate Andhra State in December 1952.

New States formed after 1956 were :

1. This commission led to the creation of 14 states and six union territories. Maharashtra, Gujarat, Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Tripura, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand are the new states formed after 1956.
2. Uttarakhand from Uttar Pradesh, Chhattisgarh from Madhya Pradesh and Jharkhand from Bihar all of these created in 2000.
3. In 2014, another state is created after bifurcation of Andhra Pradesh, namely Telangana. As a result Gujarat was formed out by Bombay. Haryana was from Punjab, Himachal Pradesh was formed out from Punjab. Tripura, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh were created from AssAnswer:

Question 4.
Explain any three challenges faced by India at the time of its independence. (Delhi 2014)
OR
Explain any three challenges that India faced at the time of her independence. (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
The major challenges faced by India at the time of its independence are as follows:

1. To shape a United Nation Immediately after independence, there was a challenge to make India an unified nation. There were diversities of cultures, languages, religions etc increased the questions on India’s future.

2. To establish democracy However, India is seventh largest country in the world and has different values, cultures norms etc. According to the Constitution, India has adopted the democratic government on the basis of adult franchise. The challenge was how to maintain democracy.

3. To ensure the development and well-being The Constitution laid down in Fundamental Rights that all citizens are equal and all of them are free to practise their own religion. In DPSP laid down welfare state. Although the Preamble of the Constitution laid down that the Principles of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity were adopted to develop the society. However, the challenges were how to overcome the poverty and how to develop economy of India through the peoples’ participation.

4. Integration of princely states After independence, there were 565 Princely States. The Independence Act, 1947 says that British India divided into two nations India and Pakistan. And Princely States may be merged with both the countries or stayed independent. The British left India with multiple problems. This was certain and very serious challenge raised in front of India.

Question 5.
What were the major challenges of building democracy in India? (All India 2011)
Answer:
There were three major challenges of building democracy in India. These were as follows :
1. Communalism Indian polity is secular in nature, but communalism is thriving in the country and now it constitutes a serious problem of Indian states. India respects all religions and the major religious communities are Hindus, Muslims, Jains, Buddhists, Parsis, Christians and Anglo-Indians The Muslims constitute the largest minority community. The Hindus constitute more than 80 per cent of population of the country. Most of Hindu leaders believed that India does not have diverse communities.

2. Caste This is the biggest threat to India as political parties candidates are of the same caste as that of the majority voters, who favour him on caste basis although politics has moved towards casteism. It has brought a balance in caste equation, because not only the advanced castes but other castes also are eligible for participation in a representative democracy. The association of politics with caste has led democracy to a greater rationality vis-a-vis the caste system. The political parties while selecting the candidates, see whether the candidate will be able to get the support of voters of his caste or not.

3. Multi-party system After independence, many regional parties have formed, whether on religious basis or caste basis or any other basis. These multi-party systems further lead to coalition government this is also big threat to Indian democracy.

Question 6.
Discuss the problem related to Kashmir between India and Pakistan. (HOTS: All India 2010)
Answer:
The Congress party has evolved its politics on Kashmir on the basis of major global and domestic developments.

Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru repeated his commitment to find the will of the people of Kashmir in the Constituent Assembly of India. The problems of Kashmir between Indian and Pakistan are :
1. Accession to India India was satisfied that the most important political leader and party of Kashmir had accepted accession to India. The leader like Sheikh AbdullAll of National Conference represented the democratic will of the people of Kashmir and they were unambiguously acceeded to India. The Congress party also assured internal autonomy to the people of Jammu and Kashmir through the Constitution of India.

2. Article 370 and political consensus The Article 370 of Constitution can be altered in favour of the centre. Many other parties have supported this article, but Bharatiya Jan Sangh (now BJP) rejected every premise and every policy of the Congress and wanted to omit Article 370. Two extremely polarised position on Kashmir are represented by Congress and the BJP and it is impossible to evolve any minimal national consensus on Kashmir in India.

3. Emergence of terrorism Further the emergence of terrorism in the valley has accentuated polarisation among political parties in India because Pakistan is directly involved in terrorist activities.

4. Inter-regional dispute Another dimensions that Kashmir valley, Jammu and Ladakh have involved is, inter-regional disputes and competition. Ladakh’s political parties say that Kashmir discriminated them. But after the entry of centre all the movements were discontinued. If Jammu and Kashmir valley are separated from each other, then another two-nation theory could be faced by Indian Union. That’s why the political parties have to maintain legitimacy and democracy with all.

Question 7.
What were the main consideration for bringing princely states with Indian Union? Who played the historic role in this task? (Delhi 2008)
Answer:
The British paramountacy was over on the princely States after independence and these states may go with India or Pakistan or stay independent. There were 565 princely states.

Problem started because of following reasons:

1. The decision was totally upto the ruler not on the people this was a serious problem and big threat on the existence of a united India.
2. After Independence ruler of Travancore declared himself ‘ independent after a few days Hyderabad made same declaration.
3. Nawab of Bhopal was averse to join Constituent Assembly. This kind of differences might futher divide India into small states or countries.

Government Approaches Government took forward step and negotiated with the Princely State ruler and saw that the people of these states wanted to become a part of the Indian Union. Then government adopted flexible diplomacy and gave autonomy to some states. India held plebiscite and acceded the Princely States into Indian Union and operations which government operationalised accessed the Princely States, e.g., in Junagadh Government held plebiscite, operation Vijay in Goa and operation Polo in Hyderabad. Therefore, after all these efforts integrated Princely States.

Sardar Patel who was the Deputy Prime Minister and Home Minister that time, played an important role in negotiating with Princely States rulers and brought them into the Indian Union.

Passage-Based Question

Question 1.
Read the paragraph given below carefully and answer the following questions. (Delhi 2010)
We have a Muslim minority who are so large in numbers that they cannot, even if they want, go anywhere else. That is a basic fact about which there can be no argument. Whatever the provocation from Pakistan and whatever the indignities and horrors inflicted on non-Muslims there, we have got to deal with this minority in a civilised manner. We must give them security and the rights of citizens in a democratic state. If we fail to do so, we shall have a festering sore which will eventually poison the whole body politic and probably destroy it. Jawaharlal Nehru, Letter to Chief Minister, 15th October, 1947 :
(i) In spite of indignities and horrors inflicted on Non-Muslims by Pakistan, why Jawaharlal Nehru wanted to deal with the Muslim minority in a civilised way?
(ii) Why this minority should be given the security and rights on the same footing as to all others in a democratic system?
(iii) If this minority was not provided security and rights what kind of scenario is envisaged?
Answer:
(i) At the time of partition Pakistan inflicted horrors on non-Muslims. Despite this fact Nehru wanted to deal with the Muslim minority in a civilised way because out of the then minority communities in India Muslims were large in numbers. They had no option to go anywhere.
(ii) India is a democratic and secular country, where all religions are treated equally. Because of this factor the Muslim minority should be given security and rights on the same footings in India.
(iii) If this minority was not provided security and rights it will poison the whole Indian political system and the Indian democratic set-up would come to an end.

Value Based Questions (VBQs)

Question 1.
Sardar Patel in a letter to princely rulers in 1947 said, “I hope the Indian states shall realise fully that if we do not cooperate and work together in general interest, anarchy and chaos will overwhelm us all, great and small, and lead us to total ruin.”
Answer the following questions
(i) What general interest has been referred to?
(ii) What situation would lead to total ruin? (All India 2008)
Answer:
(i) The general interest referred to raise the country to new greatness. Lack of unity will expose India to unexpected calamities.
(ii) Sardar Patel said that Indian states should realise fully that if they do not cooperate and work together in general interest, anarchy and chaos will lead the nation to total ruin.

Question 2.
Malama Gandhi said on 14th August, 1947, “Tomorrow will be a day rejoicing as well as mourning”. (Delhi 2008)
OR
According to MAllatma Gandhi, why would 15th August, 1947 (tomorrow) be a day of rejoicing as well as mourning?
Answer:
Malama Gandhi referred to the 15th August, 1947 both a day of rejoicing as well as mourning beause on one hand India was about to get independence from the British rule, whereas on the other hand gruesome riots between Hindus and Muslims were taking place in the country due to partition.

We hope the Political Science Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 10 Challenges of Nation Building help you. If you have any query regarding Political Science Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 10 Challenges of Nation Building, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

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NTSE Jammu and Kashmir : Jammu and Kashmir Board of Secondary Education (JKBOSE) will conduct NTSE J and K Stage 1. NTSE J&K will be conducted on 17th November 2019. The application process will start in the first week of August 2019. Class 10th regular students can apply for NTSE J&K till the last week of September 2019. Candidates who submit the application on or before the due date will be able to get the admit card. The admit card can be collected from the schools in the last week of October 2019. The NTSE J&K shortlisted candidates are only invited to appear for the Stage 2 exam to be held on May 2020. The final merit list will be prepared and published on the official website of NCERT.

NCERT offers scholarships every year to deserving candidates until the doctorate level of their studies. Candidates should read the complete article to know information related to NTSE J&K . Information including exam dates, application, eligibility, pattern, and syllabus, etc.

NTSE Jammu and Kashmir Exam Dates

Events	Dates
Starting of Application	First Week of August 2019
Closing of Application	Last Week of September 2019
Admit Card for Stage 1	Last Week of October 2019
NTSE Jammu and Kashmir Stage 1	November 17, 2019
NTSE Jammu and Kashmir Answer Key	Third Week of November 2019
NTSE Jammu and Kashmir Stage 1 Result	First Week of February 2020
NTSE Admit Card for Stage 2	April 2020
NTSE Stage 2	May 10, 2020
NTSE Stage 2 Result	September 2020

State-level National Talent Search Exam

NTSE Jammu and Kashmir Eligibility Criteria

The following are the eligibility conditions to appear for NTSE J&K .

• Candidates from any recognized schools of J&K including Kendriya Vidyalaya, Navodaya Vidyalaya, Sainik School or any Top Schools are eligible.
• Age limit for NTSE J&K must be less than 18 years as on 1st July 2019.
• Reserved category candidates must secure at least 40% marks in 9th class.
• General category candidates must secure at least 55% marks in 9th class.
• Candidates of open schooling or distance learning within the age limit can appear NTSE J&K.
• Jammu and Kashmir candidates who are employed in any job are not eligible.
• NMMS Scholarship holders could also be eligible for NTSE Jammu and Kashmir.

NTSE Jammu and Kashmir Application Form

NTSE J&K application form will be released on the official website of JKBOSE in the first week of August 2019. Candidates can collect an application from the school authorities or the state liaison officer. J and K students can fill and submit the application until the last week of September 2019.  Candidates can check the below-mentioned steps to apply for the NTSE J&K .

• Candidates should visit the official website jkbose.ac.in.
• Click on the online application link to download the application.
• Fill all the required details properly. Recheck the filled details thoroughly to avoid rejection of the application.
• Two passport size photos and mark sheet copies of 9th standard must be included.
• Reserved category candidates can attach a photocopy of the Caste Certificate if required.
• Physically Challenged candidates can attach a photocopy of the Disability Certificate if required.
• Attach the Pay in slip in the state liaison officer name and get the form attested from the Principal.
• Submit the filled application along with the required documents to your school Principal.
• Then the application will be further submitted to the state liaison officer on or before the due date.

NTSE Jammu and Kashmir Application Fee

Candidates make sure to pay the application fee of Rs. 110/- in favor of the state liaison officer, Jammu and Kashmir.

NTSE Jammu and Kashmir Admit Card

Candidates must collect the admit card from their school authorities in the last week of October 2019. Admit card contains the candidate name, roll number and exam center details. Mobile phones or any other instruments are not allowed in the exam. Candidate must bring the admit card on the exam day. Without admit card candidates will not be entered into the examination hall.

NTSE Jammu and Kashmir Question Pattern

The NTSE J&K stage 1 contains two parts i.e, Mental Ability Test (MAT) and Scholastic Ability Test (SAT). The NTSE J&K pattern contains exam details, number of questions asked and the duration of each paper. Each paper consists of 100 multiple choice and objective type of questions.  Refer to the table below to know the details of the exam pattern for NTSE Jammu and Kashmir

Papers	Number of questions	Type of Question	Duration
Mental Ability Test (MAT)	100	Multiple choice and objective type	120 minutes
Scholastic Ability Test (SAT)	100	Multiple choice and objective type	120 minutes

• Each right answer carries 1 mark and no negative marking for wrong answers.
• The questions will be asked from the various topics of the 9th and 10th standard syllabus.
• MAT questions are asked to test the candidate’s ability in thinking and reasoning.
• MAT contains a total of 100 multiple and objective type questions with a duration of 120 minutes.
• SAT questions are asked to test the candidate’s knowledge on each subject of their academics.
•  SAT contains a total of 100 multiple and objective type questions with a duration of 120 minutes.

NTSE Jammu and Kashmir Answer Key

The official answer keys will not be released by JKBOSE. Some coaching institutes will release the answer keys in the third week of November 2019. Answer keys help the candidates to estimate the scores before the result declaration. So, candidates can find the answer keys from the websites of the coaching institutes. Refer to the below points to know more about the NTSE J&K answer keys:

1. NTSE J&K answer keys will provide the answers to all questions asked in each paper.
2. Candidates must check the answer keys to get an idea of eligibility for NTSE Stage 2.
3. Candidates should follow the correct approach for marking.

NTSE Jammu and Kashmir Exam Result

NTSE J&K result will be released online in the first week of February 2020. JKBOSE will declare the result as a merit list of shortlisted candidates for the NTSE stage 2. The following points contain some information about the NTSE J&K Stage 1 results:

• Visit the official website of JKBOSE to check the result.
• Click on the result, enter roll number and date of birth and download the result sheet.
• In the result sheet, students can check their name, roll number, date of birth and marks obtained in each paper.
• Keep a photocopy of the result sheet for future reference.

Details Mentioned on NTSE Jammu and Kashmir Result

Candidates can check the result on the official website of JKBOSE. The NTSE J&K result sheet contains the following information of the candidates.

• Candidates Name, School and Roll number
• Candidates gender, category, date of birth and disability status
• Candidates Rank and Total marks
• Candidates section-wise scores

NTSE Jammu and Kashmir Cut-off

The minimum scores a candidate required to qualify for the NTSE stage 2 exam is the cut-off. Candidates can expect the cut-off to be declared after one week of the result announcement. NTSE J&K cut-off will be announced along with the result by JKBOSE on February 2020. The below mentioned are the various factors of cut-off

• Total number of students from each category
• Previous year’s cut-off
• The difficulty level of the exam pattern
• Highest marks obtained by candidates
• Lowest marks obtained by candidates

The following table shows the previous year’s category-wise cut-off to get an idea of trends.

Category	Cut-Off (2016-17)
SC	103
ST	109
General	112

The following table shows the cut-off percentage for NTSE J&K category candidates

Categories	MAT	SAT
General	40%	40%
SC	32%	32%
ST	32%	32%
PH	32%	32%

NTSE Jammu and Kashmir Reservation Criteria

Total 64 scholarships are reserved for Jammu and Kashmir state. These scholarships will be awarded as mentioned below:

Category	Reservation Criteria
SC	15%
ST	7.5%
PH	4%
OBC	27%

NTSE Jammu and Kashmir Stage 1 Syllabus

After submitting the application candidates must concentrate on the preparation of the examination. Since there is no particular syllabus for the NTSE Jammu and Kashmir. So, candidates have to prepare from the syllabus of class IX and X to clear the J&K Stage 1 exam. The below-given table shows some important topics for NTSE J&K Stage 1 .

Papers	Subjects	Syllabus
SAT	Math	Algebraic Expression, Surface Area and Volume, Simple and Compound Interest, Quadratic Equation, Arithmetic Progression, Square Roots and Cube Roots, Percentage, etc
	Science	Source of Energy, Human Body, Acid, Bases and Salt, Metals and non-metals, Food Production and Management, Motion and Force, Fibers and Plastics, Structure of an Atom and Measurements, etc.
	Social Sciences	Indian Constitution, The Mughal Empire, New Empires and Kingdoms, Delhi Sultanate, Industrial Revolution, Early Medieval Period, Resources and Development, British Raj, Democracy and Elections, Atmosphere, The Judiciary, Map and Globe, Natural Vegetation and Solar System, etc.
MAT	Verbal & Non-Verbal Reasoning	Mirror and Water Images, Blood Relations, Coding-Decoding, Distance and Direction, Word Problems, Calendar, Time and Clock, Ranking and Arrangements, etc.

NTSE Scholarships Amount

The HRD Ministry, Government of India has sponsored the NTSE scholarship . Jammu and Kashmir candidates have to qualify in both the stages of NTSE. Then only they can be awarded the scholarship amount every month. NTSE deserving candidates only can avail approximately 2000 scholarships offered by NCERT.

Education Level	Scholarship Amount
Class XI to XII	Rs. 1250/-
Undergraduate	Rs. 2000/-
Postgraduate	Rs. 2000/-
Ph.D.	According to the UGC norms

Hope this article will help you to get more information about NTSE Jammu and Kashmir . Don’t forget to add your comment for any information/queries.

Scholarships for Students

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RD Sharma Class 7 solutions Chapter 11 Percentage Exercise 11.4 Q3

NCERT SolutionsMathsScienceSocialEnglishSanskritHindiRD Sharma

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Climate Class 9 Important Questions Social Science Geography Chapter 4

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science Geography Chapter 4 Climate

Climate Class 9 Important Questions Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is climate? [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
The climate refers to the sum total of weather conditions and variations over a large area for a long period of time.

Question 2.
What is weather?
Answer:
‘Weather’ refers to the state of the atmosphere over an area at any point of time.

Question 3.
Name the. elements of weather and climate.
Answer:
Temperature, atmospheric pressure, wind, humidity and precipitation.

Question 4.
What does ‘monsoon’ imply? [CBSE 2015]
Answer:
The word, ‘monsoon’ comes from the Arabic word’ mausim’ which means season. It implies a seasonal reversal in the wind direction throughout the year.

Question 5.
Which are the rainest months of India?
Answer:
June to September

Question 6.
Name the month in which the withdrawl of monsoon begins.
Answer:
September

Question 7.
Which region of India receives most of its rainfall in winter?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu coast.

Question 8.
Name the two branches of the monsoon.
Answer:

• The Arabian Sea branch.
•  The Bay of Bengal branch.

Question 9.
What is burst of monsoon? [CBSE 2015]
Answer:
Around the time of its arrival, the normal rainfall increases suddenly and continues constantly for several days. This is known as the ‘burst’ of the monsoon.

Question 10.
What me the ‘retreating monsoons’? [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
During the months of October and November, the temperature in the Northern plains begins to decrease, and because of low temperature, the pressure starts rising and the low pressure is no longer strong enough to attract the monsoon winds. This results in the retreat of the monsoon.

Question 11.
With reference to the ‘Cold weather season in India, answer the following questions.
(i) What is its time period?
(ii) Name the winds which prevail over the country during this season.
Answer:
(i) Mid November to February.
(ii) North-East trade winds.

Question 12.
Name the winds from which the Tamil Nadu coast receive winter rainfall?
Answer.
North-East monsoons which reach there after passing over the Bay of Bengal, and picking moisture from there. .

Question 13.
Name two coldest areas in India.
Answer:
Dras and Kargil (Temperature – 40°C)

Question 14.
Which is the wettest place in India?
Answer:
Mawsynram in the southern ranges of the Khasi hills.

Question 15.
What is a jet stream?
Answer:
A jet stream is a fast blowing wind blowing in a narrow zone in the upper atmosphere.

Question 16.
‘The peninsular region does not have a well defined cold season.’ Give reason.
Answer:
Due to the moderating influence of the sea, the peninsular region does not have a well defined cold season.

Question 17.
Name two states where mango showers are common. [CBSE 2000(B)]
Answer:
Kerala and Karnataka.

Question 18.
Name two states on the eastern coast which are frequently struck by the tropical cyclones.
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

Question 19.
What is meant by breaking of monsoon or burst of the monsoon?
Answer:
The rain bearing monsoons are extremely strong and violent. Their approach is accompanied by thunder and lightning. This is known as the Wreaking of monsoon.

Question 20.
What is the name given to the climate of India?
Answer:
The Monsoon climate.

Question 21.
What is loo?
Answer:
It is a local wind which is hot and dry.

Question 22.
Name the wind which prevails over India in winter season.[CBSE 2013]
Answer:
North-East trade winds.

Question 23.
Two stations with most equable climate.
Answer:
Mumbai and Chennai.

Question 24.
Two stations with most extreme climate.
Answer:
Leh and Jodhpur.

Question 25.
Name any two regions which receive over 400 cm of rainfall.
Answer:
The Western coast and the North-eastern India receive over 400 cm of rainfall.

Question 26.
Name two stations influenced by the retreating and the North-East monsoons.
Answer:
Chennai and Bengaluru.

Question 27.
Two stations receiving winter showers from the western disturbances.
Answer:
Amritsar and Delhi.

Question 28.
State two chief characteristics of the Western Disturbances? [CBSE1995,2013]
Answer:

• These originate over the east Mediterranean sea.
• These cause rain in North India.

Climate Class 9 Important Questions Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
“ Despite an overall unity in the gen¬eral pattern of climate of India,there are perceptible regional variations in climatic conditions within the country.” Justify.
Or
“India has diverse climatic conditions”Support this statement by giving examples, each of tempera¬ture and precipitation.
Answer:

• The mercury occasionally touches 50°C in the western deserts, and it drops down to as low as -45°C in winter around Leh.
• The annual precipitation is less than 10 cm in the north-west Himalayas and the western desert. It exceeds 400 cm in Meghalaya.
• Most parts of the country receive rainfall from June to September, but some parts like the Tamil Nadu coast get most of its rain during October and November.

Question 2.
Explain the factors affecting India’s climate. [CBSE 2015]
Answer:

• Latitude : The Tropic of Cancer passes through the middle of the country from the Rann of Kuchchh in the west to Mizoram in the east. Almost half of the country, lying south of the Tropic of Cancer, belongs to the tropical area. All the remaining area, north of the Tropic, lies in the sub-tropic. Therefore, India’s climate has characteristics of tropical as well as subtropical climates.
• Altitude: India has mountains to the north which have an average height of about 6,000 metres. India also has a.vast coastal area where the maximum elevation i% about 30 metres. The Himalayas prevent the cold winds from Central AsiafrQm entering the subcontinent. It is because of these mountains that this subcontinent experiences comparatively milder winters as compared to central Asia.
• Pressure and Winds: The pressure and wind conditions over India are unique. During winter, there is a high-pressure area north of the Himalayas. Cold dry winds blow from this region to the low-pressure areas over the oceans to the south. In summer, a low-pressure area develops over interior Asia as well as over northwestern India. This causes a complete reversal of the direction of winds during summer. Air moves from the high-pressure area over the southern Indian Ocean, in a south¬easterly direction, crosses the equator, and turns right towards the low-pressure areas over the Indian subcontinent. These are known as the Southwest Monsoon winds. These winds blow over the warm oceans, gather moisture and bring widespread rainfall over the mainland of India.

Question 3.
Mention any three characteristics of the Monsoon’.[CBSE 2011,12,14 ]
Answer:

• The Monsoons are pulsating in nature.
• These are affected by different atmospheric conditions prevailing in the region.
• The duration of the monsoon is between 100 – 120 days.

Question 4.
What is “October Heat”?
Answer:
The months of October-November form a period of transition from a hot rainy season to dry winter conditions. The retreat of monsoons is marked by clear skies, and rise in temperature. The land is still moist. Owing to the condition of high temperature and humidity, the weather becomes rather oppressive. This is commonly known as ‘October Heat’.

Question 5.
Explain development of Monsoon Trough and its influence over rainfall distribution. [CBSE 2014]
Answer:

• It is a region of low atmospheric pressure which develops because of excessive heat.
• It brings a remarkable change in rainfall pattern.
• It is responsible for diy and wet spells of monsoon.

Questions.6.
Give reasons as to why:
(i) Seasonal reversal of wind direction takes place over the Indian subcontinent.
(ii) The bulk rainfall in India is concentrated over a few months.
(iii) The Tamil Nadu coast receives winter rainfall.
(iv) The delta region of the eastern coast is frequently struck by cyclones.
(v) Parts of Rajasthan, Gujarat and the leeward side of the Western Ghats are drought prone.
Answer:
(i)

• During winter, there is a high pressure area over north of the . Himalayas. Whereas, there is low pressure area over the ocean to the south. So cold and dry winds blow from the Himalayan region towards the ocean.
• During summer, a low pressure area develops over the interior , Asia as well %is over the Northwestern India. This causes a complete reversal of the direction of winds during summer.

(ii)

• Most parts of India receive rainfall from the south-west monsoons which blow in India only between June to September.
• Only the eastern coast of India receives some rainfall from the North-East trade winds during the cold weather season.
• It is because Tamil Nadu gets rain from the north-east monsoons which reach there after passing over the Bay of Bengal, after picking moisture from there.

(iv)

• In the mid-October, the mercury
  begins to fall at a rapid speed in Northern India.
• The low pressure conditions of the North shifts to the Bay of Bengal by November. This shift causes cyclonic depressions in the Andaman Sea.
• These cyclonic depressions give rise to tropical cyclones which cause heavy and widespread rains in the deltas of the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri.

(v)

• Rajasthan does not receive much rain because the Aravalli Range which lies parallel to the direction of the winds and hence condensation does not occur.
• Gujrat receives less rainfall because there are no hills and mountain ranges.
  The leeward side of the Western Ghats receives less rainfall because when air descends, it gets warmed up. Due to its rising temperature, the relative, humidity of air decreases, and the air turns from a saturated state to an unsaturated state. Due to his fact, no rainfall occurs on the leeward side.

Climate Class 9 Important Questions Long Answer Type Questions

Questions.1.
Compare the hot weather season of India with that of cold weather season.
Answer:

Questions.2.
How will you differentiate between the summer and winter monsoons?
Or
Differentiate between South-West and North-East trade winds.
Answer:

Climate Class 9 Important Questions Higher Order Thinking Skills (Huts) Questions

Questions. 1.
Give reason for the following:
(i) Thiruvananthapuram has the year equable climate.
(ii) Delhi has extreme climate.
(iii) The Tamil Nadu coast receives winter rainfall.
(iv) Leh has moderate precipitation almost through-out the year.
(v) The delta region of the eastern coast is frequently struck by cyclones.
Answer:
(i) It has equable climate due to proximity to sea. Sea has moderating influence over its climate.
(ii) Because Delhi is far away from sea. As the distance from the sea increases,its moderating influence decreases.
(iii) Tamil Nadu receives rainfall from North-east trade winds.
(iv) Leh is at a very high altitude. During the cold weather season, the ‘Western Disturbances’ contribute to heavy snowfall in this region. Both south-west and south¬east monsoons also cause precipitation in this part.
(ii) (a) In the mid October, the mercury begins to fall at a rapid speed in Northern India.
(b)The low pressure conditions of the North shifts to the Bay of the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri.

Questions.2.
Carefully study the given rainfall and temperature graphs and answer the following of questions:
(i) Which station receives more rainfall?
Answer:
Shillong.

(ii) Which is the rainiest month of Shillong?
Answer:
June

(iii) Which is the coldest month in Leh?
Answer:
January

(iv) Compare the climatic conditions of both the stations with reference to rainfall and temperature.
Answer:

• Leh receives very low rainfall whereas Shillong receives very high rainfall.
• Temperature in Leh remains very low throughout the year whereas temperature in Shillong remains between 10°C to 20°C.
  Bengal by November. This shift causes cyclonic depressions in the Andaman Sea.
•  These cyclonic depressions give rise to tropical cyclones which cause heavy and widespread rains in the deltas

Questions.3.
Study the climatic data given below and answer the questions that follow: [CBSE2014]

(i) Calculate the annual range of temperature of Station A. Why is the range of . temperature very low?
(ii) Which of the two Stations has the lower temperature? Why?
(iii) Calculate the annual rainfall of Station B.
Answer:
(i) 5.6 Because the station is near the sea.
(ii) Station B. Because of high altitude.
(iii) Annual rainfall of station B is 31.8 cm.

Questions.4.
Given below is the climate data – mean monthly temperatures and mean monthly rainfall for stations A, B and C from India. Study the data carefully and answer the following questions:

(i) What is the annual range of temperature in Station A?
Answer:
The annual range of temperature in Station A (32.5°C — 24.5°C) = 8°C

(ii) What is the annual rainfall experienced by the Station A?
Answer.
4.6+1.3+ 1.3 = 128.7 cm.

(iii) Name the wettest month in Station A.
Answer.
November.

(iv) Calculate the annual rainfall of Station C.
Answer.
The annual rainfall of Station C is 183.4 cm. (0.2 + 0.2 + 1.8 + 50.6..)

Climate Class 9 Important Questions Value Based Questions

Questions.1.
Which moral values the monsoon teaches us? Mention any two.
Answer:

• Monsoon acts as a unifying bond.
• Monsoon are responsible for unity in diversity.

Questions.2.
Why the people of India eagerly awaits the arrival of the monsoon?
Answer:
These monsoon winds binds the whole country by providing water to set the agricultural activities in motion.

Questions.3.
Compare he retreating monsoon with advancing monsoon.
Or
Mention any three features of retreating monsoon.
Or
Mention any four features of advancing monsoon.
Answer:

Questions.2.
“Monsoon acts as a unifying bond”. Explain. [CBSE March 2013,15]
Answer:

• The seasonal alteration of the wind systems and the associated weather conditions provide a rhythmic cycle of seasons. Even the uncertainties of rain and uneven distribution are very much typical of the monsoons.
• The Indian landscape, its animal and plant life, its entire agricultural calendar arid the life of the people, including their festivities, revolve around this phenomenon. Year after year, people of India from north to south and from east to west, eagerly await the arrival of the monsoon.
• These monsoon winds bind the whole country by providing water to set the agricultural activities in motion. The river valleys which carry this water also unite as a single river valley unit.

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science

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People as Resource Class 9 Important Questions Social Science Economics Chapter 2

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science Economics Chapter 2 People as Resource

People as Resource Class 9 Important Questions Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is human capital?
Answer:
Human capital is the stock of skilled and productive work force of a nation.

Question 2.
How can the population of a nation becomes human capital?
Answer:
Population of a nation becomes human capital through education, training and medical care.

Question 3.
Which type of investment is known as human capital investment?
Answer:
The investment made in the form of education, training and medical care is known as human capital investment.

Question 4.
How is human capital superior to other resources?
Or
Why is human resource considered to be the best resource? Explain.
Answer:
Human capital can make use of land and capital for further production, whereas land and capital cannot become useful on its own.

Question 5.
Name any four factors which can improve the quality of human resources.
Answer:

• Education,
• Health,
• Training,
• Technology.

Question 6.
Mention any four factors on which the quality of population depends.
Answer:

• Literacy rate,
• Health,
• Life expectancy,
• Skill.

Question 7.
‘Countries like Japan did not have any natural resources, still they are developed countries.’Give reasons.
Answer:

• They have invested on people especially in the field of education and health.
• The skilled and trained people have made efficient use of other resources like land and capital. Efficiency and technology evolved by people have made these countries rich/developed.

Question 8.
The various economic activities have been classified into three sectors? What are these sectors?
Answer:

• Primary,
• Secondary,
• Tertiary.

Question 9.
Give two examples of primary sector.
Answer:

• Agriculture,
• Foresty.

Question 10.
Which sector (in the primary sector) is the most labour absorbing sector of the economy? ‘
Answer:
Agriculture.

Question 11.
Give two examples of secondary sector.
Answer:

• Manufacturing of cloth.
• Manufacturing of car.

Question 12.
A person is making envelopes with the help of papers. In which sector his activity be included?
Answer:
Secondary sector

Question 13.
Give two examples of tertiary sector.
Answer:

• Trace,
• Transportation.

Question 14.
What are market activities?
Answer:
The activities which involve remuneration to anyone who performs, i.e., activities performed for pay or profit. For example, growing of cotton by a farmer.

Question 15.
What are determinants of the earning of any individual in the1’ market? ‘
Answer:

• Education,
• Skill.

Question 16.
State an example of a non-market activity.
Or
Give an example of a non-economic activity.
Answer:
A mother cooking food for her family.

Question 17.
What is the term used for production for self-consumption?
Answer:
Non-market activity.

Question 18.
What are non-market activities?
Answer:
These are activities which are performed for self consumption. For example, growing of wheat by a farmer.

Question 19.
What is infant mortality rate?
Answer:
Infant mortality rate is the death of a child under one year of age.

Question 20.
What is birth rate?
Answer:
Birth rate is the number of babies bom there for every 1000 people during a particular period of time.

Question 21.
What is death rate?
Answer:
Death rate is the number of people per 1000 who die during a particular period of time.

Question 22.
What does increase in unemployment indicate?
Answer:
Depressed economy.

Question 23.
What is the most labour absorbing sector of economy?
Answer:
Agriculture.

Question 24.
In which sector is disguised unemployment mostly found?
Answer:
Agriculture sector.

Question 25.
What is meant by seasonal unemployment?
Answer:
Seasonal unemployment happens when people are not able to find jobs during some months of the year. For example, workers working in sugar mills get employment only for four or five months in a year.

Question 26.
State the two types of unemployment existing in rural India.
Answer:
Seasonal and disguised unemployment.

Question 27.
What name has been given to the unemployment when people do not find job dining some months of a year?
Answer:
Seasonal unemployment.

Question 28.
A work requires the services of five people but engages eight people. Which type of unemployment is this?
Answer:
Disguised unemployment.

Question 29.
What type of unemployment is found in agriculture? Mention any one feature of this type of unemployment. HOTS
Answer:
Disguised unemployment is found in agriculture.
Under this, people appear to be employed, but actually they are not.

Question 30.
How unemployment problem differs in rural areas?
Answer:
In case of rural areas there is seasonal and disguised unemployment whereas urban areas have educated unemployment

Question 31.
Which type of unemployment is common in urban areas?
Or
Which type of unemployment is found in urban areas?
Answer:
Educated unemployment.

Question 32.
Which Asian country invested the most part of resources on people, the especially in the field of education and health?
Answer:
Japan.

Question 33.
What do you call shifting of labourers from rural area to urban area in search of work?
Answer:
Migration.

Question 34.
‘Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan’ is a significant step towards providing elementary education to all children of which age group?
Answer:
6-14 years.

People as Resource Class 9 Important Questions Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How has human capital formation helped India?
Answer:

• It increases people’s level of productivity and efficiency as well as the productive power of the country.
• It has added to skilled labour force of India.
• Millions of skilled workers are working in other countries. They earn foreign exchange for us.

Question 2.
How is human resource different from other factors of production? Explain it in three points.
Answer:

• It is living active factor of production.
• It extracts work and activates other factors.
• It works as labour, management and entrepreneur.

Question 3.
Which is the most labour absorbing sector of the Indian economy? What trend has been recently noticed in terms of dependence of population on this sector and what is the reason for that?
Answer:

• Agriculture is the most labour absorbing sector of the Indian economy.
• In recent years, there has been a decline in dependence of population on agriculture. This decline is mainly due to:
  • Disguised unemployment.
  • Surplus labour in agriculture has moved to either the Secondary or Tertiary Sector.

Question 4.
“Employment structure is characterised by self-employment in the primary sector.” Explain the statement.
Answer:

• The whole family contributes in the field even though not everybody is really needed. So, there is disguised unemployment in the agriculture sector.
• All the family also have a share in what has been produced.
• The concept of sharing of work in the field and the produce raised reduces the hardship of unemployment in the rural areas. But, this does not reduce the poverty of the family.

Question 5.
Explain the ways of investment of Human Resources that can give high returns in future.
Answer:
Three ways of investment in development of Human Resource are:

• Through Education.
• Through Medical Care.
• New technology.
• Providing training to use new technology. ,
• They can discover new methods of increasing production.
• Acquired knowledge is well-invested in new fields like IT.

Question 6.
How are working conditions for women in unorganised sector different from those in the organised sector? Explain.
Answer:

• The woman working in unorganised sector has lower wages than that in organised sector. This is because organised sector requires education and skill.
• Jobs are low paid and often not regular. Workers can be removed at any time without assigning reason. This is not the case in the organised sector.
• In unorganised sector, there is absence of basic facilities like maternity leaves, child care etc. while in the organise sector, these facilities are available.

Question 7.
Explain how investment in education creates the virtuous cycle of human development.
Or
What does a Virtuous cycle’ created by the educated parents mean? Explain. HOTS
Answer:

• A child, too, with investments made on her/ his education and health can yield a high return in future and contribute more to society.
• Educated parents invest more heavily on the education of their children.
• This is because, they realize the importance of education.
• They are also conscious of proper nutrition and hygiene.
• A virtuous cycle is, thus, created.

Question 8.
Why do educated parents invest more heavily on their children’s education? Give three reasons.
Answer:

• They realize the importance of education.
• They are conscious of proper nutrition and hygiene.
• Educated parents have more income as compared to illiterate parents.

Question 9.
Explain three problems of educated unemployment in urban areas.
Answer:
Problems:

• Many youth with matriculation, graduation and post-graduation degrees are not able to find job.
• Unemployment of graduate and post-graduate has increased faster than among matriculates.
• A paradoxical manpower situation is witnessed as surplus of manpower in certain categories co-exist with shortage of manpower in others.
• There is unemployment among technically qualified persons bn one hand while there is a dearth of technical skills.

Question 10.
What is seasonal unemployment? What are the factors responsible for seasonal unemployment?
Answer:
It is a type of unemployment in which a worker is employed during some months of the year (especially, during harvesting or the sowing season), anti remains without work during the rest of the year.
Factors:

• Lack of small-scale and cottage industries in rural areas.
• Lack of multiple cropping. .
• Lack of commercialisation of agriculture.

Question 11.
Can you suggest some measures in the education system to mitigate the problem of the educated unemployed?
Answer:

• Technical education should be provided.
• Vocational education should be introduced.
• Emphasis should be given to skill development.

Question 12.
Why will a firm not like to employ a worker having ill-health? How does it affect the working environment?
Answer:
(i) (a) The main objective of a firm is to maximise its profit. So, any firm would not like to employ a worker having ill-health because he/she may not work efficiently as a healthy worker due to ill-health,
(b) An unhealthy person becomes a liability for an organisation or the economy.
(ii) It affects the working environment adversely. An unhealthy person can infect healthy persons of the organisation also.

Question 13.
‘Improvement in the health status of the population has been the priority of a country.’ Give reasons.
Answer:

• Healthy citizens are the basic factors of production.
• The health of a person helps him to realise his potential, and the ability to fight illness.
• An unhealthy worker or person becomes a liability for the country.
• Good health increases the efficiency of the worker.

Question 14.
Explain any three consequences of unemployment.
Answer:

• Poverty: The basic cause of poverty is unemployment. People do not have enough money to support their family. Inability of educated people, who are willing to work to find gainful employment implies a great social waste.
• Increase in Dependent Population: Unemployment tends to increase the economic overload. The dependence of the unemployed on the working population increases.
• Poor Quality of Life: The quality of life of an individual as well as of the society is adversely affected. When a family has to live on a bare subsistence level, there is a general decline in its health status and rising withdrawal from the school system.

Question 15.
What are the two types of unemployment which are prevailing in rural areas? Write any four factors responsible for this. HOTS
Answer:
(i) Disguised unemployment,
(ii) Seasonal unemployment.
Causes:

• Large families due to overpopulation.
• Underdevelopment of cottage and small-scale industries.
• Lack of diversification of agriculture.
• Lack of capital.

Question 16.
Suggest some methods to remove rural unemployment problem.
Answer:

• By promoting small-scale and cottage industry.
• By spreading technical education.
• By promoting supplement works like animal rearing, horticulture etc.

Question 17.
What is disguised unemployment? Explain with the help of an example.
Answer:
It is a situation in which more workers are working in an activity than required. The people, who are actually engaged in such an activity appear to be employed, but are not fully employed. For example, if for the cultivation of one hectare land, 10 workers are required, but instead of 10 workers, 15 workers are working. In this case, 5 workers are disguised unemployed. In such cases, even if the surplus workers are removed the production does not suffer.

Question 18.
Distinguish between disguised unemployment and educated unemployment.
Answer:

S.No.	Disguised Unemployment	Educated Unemployment
(i)	Under this, people appear to be employed, but they are not.	Under this, people are educated, but are unable to find a job.
(ii)	It is mainly found in rural areas.	It is mainly found in urban areas.

Question 19.
Distinguish between market and non-market activities.
Answer:

Market	Non-market
(i) These involve remuneration, i.e., they are performed for pay or profit.	These activities are performed for self consumption.
(ii) Teacher teaching in a school, a worker working in a mine, a man working in a bank, etc. are some examples of market activities.	Subsistence farming, processing of primary products etc. are non-market activities.

Question 20.
What are the objectives of the 10th Five Year Plan with reference to education?
Answer:

• The 10th Five Year Plan endeavoured to increase the enrolment in higher education of the 18 to 23 year age group from the present 6 per cent to 9 per cent, by the end of the plan period,
• The strategy focuses on increasing access quality, adoption of states-specific curriculum modification, vocationalisation and networking on the use of information technology.
• The plan also focuses on distant education, convergence of formal, non-formal, distant and IT education institutions.

People as Resource Class 9 Important Questions Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you understand by Human Capital Formation? Highlight two initiatives each of Indian government to enhance health and education facilities.
Answer:
When the existing human resource is further developed by becoming more educated and healthy, human capital formation takes place. It adds to the productive power of the country. Just like the physical capital formation.
Following are the two schemes introduced by the government to enhance health facilities in India:

• Integrated child development services.
• Central government health schemes.

Following are the two schemes introduced by the government to enhance education facilities in India:

• Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan.
• Mid-day meal scheme.

Question 2.
Why is human capital considered superior to other resources like land and physical capital? Name the factors that affect the quality of population. Explain, how these factors help in human capital formation?
Answer:
Factors affecting human capital formation are:

• It is living active factor of production.
• It extracts work and activates other factors.
• It works as labour, management and entrepreneur.

Factors affecting the quality of population are:

• Skill Formation: Skill formation increases the productivity of the workers.
• Health: A healthy worker is an asset for the company as well as society.
• Literacy Rate: Education widens the menial horizon of the citizens.

Question 3.
“People are the greatest resource that a country has.” Explain.
Or
Why is the human resource important for development? Explain.
Answer:

• It is a way of referring to a country’s working people in terms of their existing productive skills and abilities. Land, capital and natural resources etc. form the important resources of a country because these help in further production, but all these are useless if a country does not have human resource. It is a human resource which converts all the other sources into useful form.
• Countries like China, Japan etc. have achieved a high growth rate due to human capital.
• A skilled and trained person generates more than uneducated and unskilled worker.

Question 4.
How are children of educated parents different from those of uneducated parents? Give three points of difference.
Answer:

Children of Educated Parents	Children of Unedcated Parents
(i) These parents realise the importance of education. So, they are found to invest more heavily on the education of their children.	Uneducated parents often fail to realise the importance of education. They are seen reluctant to spend heavily on the education of their children.
(ii) They are conscious of proper nutrition and hygiene. So, they properly look after their children’s health and nutritional needs.	These parents are themselves uneducated and lacking in hygiene. So, they are not expected to properly look after their children’s health and hygiene needs.
(iii) Being better educated and healthy, these children are always expected to yield a high return in the future.	Their children are also not expected to receive higher education and yield a high return in the future.
(iv) Their earnings are higher and they provide greater contribution to society.	Their earnings are generally expected to be less and insufficient. So, their contribution to society is also likely to be lower.
(v) As educated parents better look after their children’s education and health, a virtuous cycle is created.	As these parents are found deficient in looking after their children’s health, hygienic condition form a vicious cycle. Their children also remain in a similarly disadvantaged state.

Question 5.
Mention any five steps which have been taken by the government to promote education. taken by the government to promote education.
Or
Explain the initiative taken by the government to improve elementary education in India.
Or
Give three measures taken by Government to improve literacy condition in India.
Answer:

(i) Government has launched various schemes for providing universal access, retention and quality in elementary education, with a special emphasis on girls.

(ii) There is also an establishment of pace setting of schools like the Novodaya Vidyalaya in each district.

(iii) Vocational streams have been developed to equip large number of high school students with occupations related to knowledge and skills.

(iv) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan is a significant step towards providing elementary education to all children in the age group of six to fourteen years by 2010. It is a time-bound initiative of the central government, in partnership with the states, the local government and the community for achieving the goal of universalisation of elementary education.

(v) The Right to Education act has been passed by the Indian Parliament to provide free and compulsory education of all children in the age group of 6 to 14 years.

Question 6.
How education and skill formation are the major determinants of the earning of any individual in the market? Explain.
Answer:

• Education and training lead to higher productivity.
• Earning capacity of an individual depends upon productivity.
• Education also leads to mobility of human resource. Many a time people migrate to other regions or countries in search of better opportunities. Farm labours are ill paid because of their low productivity.
  Countries like Japan and USA have high per capita income because of skill formation.

Question 7.
Mention any one advantage of education. How can an educated woman improve her family’s condition?
Answer:
The key to education is learning. A solid education gives us a base level of understanding that allows us to actively participate in intellectual conversations, and makes us aware and open minded in any situation. An educated woman improves her family’s condition in the following manner:

• An educated woman tends to desire a smaller family size and seek the health care necessary to do so.
• An educated woman has high educational and career expectations of her children, both boys and girls. For females, education profoundly changes their lives, how they interact with society, and their economic status.
  Educated women create more equitable lives for women and their families and increase their ability to participate in community decision-making and work towards achieving local sustainability goals.

Question 8.
Female literacy rate in India is still far behind that of the men. What are the reasons of it? Explain.
Answer:
Negative Atitude for Girls: The negative attitude of illiterate parents towards the girl child and her education is one of the major reason of low female literacy.
Poverty: Poverty is another root cause of low literacy rate for the girl child.
Gender Inequality: Gender inequality is still existing in most of the remote areas of India.
Inadequate School Facilities: Most parts of rural India still lacks basic facilities related to education.
Lack of Funds: Low allotment of government funds to education sector is another cause of low literacy rate.

Question 9.
Mention any three peculiarities of literacy in India.
Answer:

• The literacy rates have increased from about 18% in 1951 to around 73% in 2011.
• A vast difference is noticed across different sections of the population. Literacy among males is nearly 50% higher than females, and it is about 50% higher in urban areas as compared to the rural areas.
• Literacy rates vary from 96% in some districts of Kerala to below 30% in some parts of Madhya Pradesh and Bihar.
• According to the census of 2001, a person aged 7 years and above, who can read and write with understanding in any language is treated as literate.

Question 10.
Describe five main features of Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan.
Or
Write a short note on ‘SARVA SHIKSHA ABHIYAN.’
Answer:

• To strengthen the primary school system, the scheme of Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) was started in 2001.
• All 6-14 age children were expected to complete eight years of schooling by 2010.
• It began as a time-bound initiative or programme of the Central Government in partnership with the state, the local government and the community to achieve the goal of universalisation of elementary education.
• This programme has covered the entire country with special focus on the educational needs of girls, SCs/STs and other children.
• Along with it, bridge courses and back-to-school camps were started to increase the enrolment in elementary education. The Mid-day Meal Scheme has been implemented to encourage attendance and retention of children as well as to improve their nutritional status.

Question 11.
What are the difference between the working conditions of educated and uneducated women? Mention any three of them.
Answer:

Uneducated Women	Educated Women
(i) Because of low skill formation, they are paid low wages as compared to men.	They are paid at par with the men.
(ii) Most of them work in unorganised sector where there is no job security, absence of basic facilities like maternity leave, child care and other social systems etc.	They work in the organised sector where they enjoy job security and other basic facilities like maternity leave, child care and other social security system etc.
(iii) Most of them work in the primary sector.	Most of them work in the secondary or tertiary sector.

Question 12.
Which two states in India have poor health facilities in comparison with others? State the ways by which health facilities in these states can be improved.
Answer:
Bihar and Uttar Pradesh.
Ways:

• Improving the accessibility of health care, family welfare.
• Ensuring nutritional service with a special focus on the under-privileged segment of population.
• Improving built up a vast health infrastructure and has developed man power required at primary, secondary and tertiary sector in Government as well as in the private sector.

Question 13.
Give an account of National Health Policy. Mention any five points.
Or
“Health should be treated as an important asset for human capital”. Analyse the statements with reference to our national health policy.
Answer:

• Improvement in the health status of the population has been the priority of the country.
• The National Health Policy 2002 aims at achieving an acceptable standard of health for the general population of the country.
• To achieve the objective, a comprehensive approach was advocated, which included improvements in individual health care, public health, sanitation, clean drinking water, access to food and knowledge of hygiene and feeding practices.
• The country has a well structured 3-tier public health infrastructure comprising Community Health Centres, Primary Health Centres and Sub-Centres spread across rural and semi-urban areas and tertiary medical care providing multi-speciality hospitals and medical colleges located almost exclusively in the urban areas.
• Over the last five decades India has built up a vast health infrastructure and has developed manpower required at primary, secondary and tertiary sector in Government as well as in the private sector.

Question 14.
Describe the provisions made by Indian government for the development of education and health care sector for the growth of society.
Answer:
Education:

• Education is one of the main factors of economic and social development.
• Education helps in increasing the mental horizon of the people, and is a must to develop human personality.
• Education helps in the development of science and technology.
• Education encourages economic development through greater participation of the people in the affairs of the country.
• Education increase the efficiency of the workers.
• It enhances the national income, cultural richness and increases the efficiency of governance.

Health:

• Health does not mean survival only. It involves not only the physical fitness of the individual but also his mental, economic and social well-being.
• Good health increases the efficiency of a worker.
• Good health increases the learning capacity of a worker.
• A healthy worker is an assest for the firm as well as for the country.

Question 15.
What are the major factors responsible for unemployment in India?
Answer:

• Rapid Growth of Population: Our population has been continuously rising. From a population of about 361 million in 1951, it has risen to around 1210.2 million in 2011, but due to slow economic growth employment opportunities have not risen at the same pace.
• Overdependence on Agriculture: Even after more than 50 years of independence, more than 60% of our population still depends upon the primary sector for its livelihood.
• Underdevelopment of Cottage and Small-scale Industry: Our
  rural sector is facing problems of disguised and seasonal unemployment. This is due to underdevelopment of the cottage and the small-scale industry.
• Underdevelopment of Industries: Due to the shortage of capital and other essential inputs, the industrialisation process is very slow. So the industrial sector has failed to provide enough job opportunities to the unemployed workers.
• Slow pace of Infrastructure Growth: Slow pace of infrastructure growth is one of the major factors responsible for the slow growth of Indian economy.

Question 16.
What is unemployment? What kind of unemployment found in India? Explain any two of them.
Answer:
It is a situation under which worker is ready to work at the prevailing wages but he/she is unable to find any useful work.

• Disguised unemployment
• Seasonal unemployment
• Structural unemployment
• Technical unemployment

Disguised Unemployment:

• It is a type of unemployment under which people appear to be employed, but actually they are not.
• It is mostly found in agriculture.
• It is mainly found in rural areas.

Seasonal Unemployment:

• It is a type of unemployment under which workers are employed only for a particular season.
• It is mostly found in agro based industries.
• It is found both in rural as well as urban areas.

Question 17.
What are the disadvantages of unemployment? Explain.
Or
“Unemployment leads to a depressed economy.” Justify the statement with five arguments.
Answer:

• Wastage of Resource: Human capital is one of the most important resources. Unemployment leads to wastage of manpower resource. People who are an asset for the economy turn into a liability.
  There is a feeling of hopelessness and despair among the youth.
• Poverty: The basic cause of poverty is unemployment. People do not have enough money to support their family. Inability of educated people, who are willing to work to find gainful employment implies a great social waste.
• Increase in Dependent Population: Unemployment tends to increase the economic overload. The dependence of the unemployed on the working population increases.
• Poor Quality of Life: The quality of life of an individual as well as of the society is adversely affected. When a family has to live on a bare subsistence level, there is a general decline in its health status and rising withdrawal from the school system.
• Class Struggle: Unemployment divides the society into haves and have-nots. Accordingly, there is class conflict that compounds the problem of social turmoil.

Question 18.
Explain any five effects of unemployment on the overall growth of an economy.
Answer:
The unemployment has detrimental impacts on the overall growth of an economy.

• It is wastage of man power resource.
• It increases the economic overload.
• It tends to increase the number of dependant population.
• Increase in unemployment is an indicator of a depressed economy.
• It can lead to emotional and mental stress.

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science

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